Female came to the ER with Bp 80/60 and pulse 125 with history of acute abdomen , next step is

Related MCQs

• Female patient with acute abdomen , CBC normal , B-HCG negative , No vaginal bleeding , Mostly is :
• Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lower abdominal pain and discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :
• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the v*gina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Female patient with history of hydatiform and complaining of lower abdominal pain , on examination there was tenderness on palpation and the lab result show high level of HCG , most likely to be :
• A young female came to you with complaint of oligomenorrhea ,hirsutism & weight gain ,US reveals bulky ovaries with subcapsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is
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• Female with history of frequent micturition may be :
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• A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is: