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Q. |
A 50-year-old perimenopausal woman is evaluated because of abdominal swelling. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows mesenteric lymphadenopathy and a small amount of ascites but no ovarian masses. Needle biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma; the tumor is found to be negative for hormone receptors. The serum carcinoembryonic antigen level is normal at 2.0 ng/mL and the serum CA-125 is 1200 ng/mL (elevated). What is the best next step in her treatment? |
A. | Combination chemotherapy |
B. | Debulking surgery |
C. | Radiation therapy to a wide port |
D. | Positron emission tomography scan to assess other sites of disease |
E. | Bone scan to rule out skeletal metastases |
Answer» B. Debulking surgery |
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