A 32-year-old woman is evaluated because of a painless swelling in her lower neck. She noted the swelling about 3 weeks ago and now thinks it is getting larger. She has no history of foreign travel. She smokes but does not drink alcohol. She owns a cat. She has not had fever or unexplained weight loss, but has had night sweats twice in the past week. She has been feeling fatigued lately and has noted dyspnea on exertion. On physical examination, a 3 X 5-cm left supraclavicular lymph node is palpable. It is firm but not rock-hard and is nontender. The remainder of her physical examination and results of a complete blood count are normal. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?

Related MCQs

• A 42-year-old woman is evaluated because she has noticed a thickening in her left breast over the past few weeks. She noticed it a few months ago, but because it seems to come and go, she put off seeking medical attention. She is premenopausal. She had menarche at age 13 years. When she was 35 years, she had one child (whom she breast-fed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no known radiation exposure and no family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, there appears to be some asymmetry in breast tissue density in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast compared with the right one, but no discrete mass. There are no palpable lymph nodes. Results of a mammogram are negative. What would be the most appropriate next step in this patients management?
• A 74-year-old woman presents for an urgent office visit. She has been experiencing epigastric discomfort over the last 3 months. Discomfort is worse during meals and prevents her from eating full portions. She has lost 5.4 kg (12 Ib). She also reports dyspnea on exertion. She has been taking ramipril, aspirin, and simvastatin. On physical examination, her pulse rate is 88/min, and her blood pressure is 155/85 mm Hg. There is mild epigastric tenderness with palpation. Her spleen is massively enlarged and palpable at the umbilicus. The edge of her liver is also palpable 6 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin is 7.5 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume 89 fL, leukocyte count 11,200/μL, and platelet count 114,000/μL. Peripheral blood smear shows numerous erythroblasts, myeloid precursors, and teardrop cells. Bone marrow cannot be aspirated, and biopsy specimen shows marked fibrosis. Analysis of blood is negative for t(9;22) by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH). What is the most l
• A 40-year-old woman was treated for breast cancer 5 years ago by lumpectomy, breast irradiation, and 3 months of chemotherapy. Her original cancer was negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and unequivocally positive for HER2. Her periods stopped during chemotherapy but resumed 4 months later, and she remains premenopausal now. She is evaluated now because of pain in her back, a nagging cough, and fatigue. Physical examination shows palpable skin nodules over the affected breast, axillary adenopathy, and dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds in the base of the left lung; her liver edge is palpable below the right costochondral border. Liver function values are approximately twice normal; serum bilirubin is normal. Radiograph of the chest shows multiple pulmonary nodules and a left pleural effusion confirmed by CT, which also shows the liver nodules. Bone scan and MRI are consistent with bone metastases. Biopsy of one of the skin lesions is consistent with metast
• In an office visit for an annual checkup, a 46-year-old man reports that he has had malaise and intermittent sweats for the past few months but has been able to continue his job as a high school teacher. Two years ago he was treated for stage III diffuse large-cell non-Hodgkin‟s lymphoma with six cycles of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) and attained complete remission. He takes simvastatin for hypercholesterolemia and hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. On physical examination, he has lymphadenopathy: a 3-cm right axillary node and a 2- cm right supraclavicular node. His spleen tip is palpable. Laboratory evaluation shows mild normochromic, normocytic anemia and an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase level. CT scans of his chest and abdomen reveal additional mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 37-year-old man is hospitalized because of fever and right-sided chest pain. He has been having fatigue and recently developed dyspnea on exertion and intermittent chills. At the age of 29 years he was diagnosed with stage III Hodgkin‟s disease and treated with multiagent chemotherapy and radiation therapy. A year ago, he developed mild anemia with no obvious cause. He takes thyroid hormone replacement when he remembers and has used fexofenadine as needed for allergic rhinitis for the past 5 years. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.7 °C (101.7 °F), pulse rate is 112/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is dullness at the right lower lung and egophony. The hemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL, hematocrit is 26 %, leukocyte count is 2200/μL,and platelet count is 70,000/μL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A 65-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The patient denies nausea and vomiting, although she claims decreased oral intake. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild diarrhea. She describes a milder episode several years ago, which resolved on its own. On physical examination, the patient is found to have left lower quadrant tenderness with some mild guarding, but no rebound. She is hemodynamically stable, and her heart rate is 82 per minute. In the initial management of this patient, which of the following is the most sensitive diagnostic test?
• A 34-year-old woman is evaluated because of progressive fatigue and recurrent attacks of abdominal pain. She weighs 61.2 kg (135 Ib). Her pulse rate is 110/min and her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. She is pale, and her spleen is palpable 4 cm below the costal margin. Laboratory studies: Hemoglobin 6 g/dL Hematocrit 20% Leukocyte count 2500/μL Platelet count 80,000/μL Reticulocyte count 10% Blood smear Anisocytosis and polychromatophilia Haptoglobin 0 mg/dL Serum lactate dehydrogenase 645 U/L There is high level of hemosiderin in the urine. What is the most likely cause of this patients pancytopenia?
• A 72-year-old man is evaluated because of constipation, abdominal pain, and distention that have worsened over the past week. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with stage III rectal cancer (primary tumor and renal involvement) and underwent low anterior resection. Chemotherapy with 5-fluorouracil and leucovorin followed, and pelvic radiation was given with concurrent infusion of 5-fluorouracil. He has been having regular bowel movements, and results of his most recent colonoscopy (1 year ago) were unremarkable. On physical examination, his pulse rate is 100/min. He has orthostatic hypotension, a slightly distended abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds, and some guarding to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. Plain radiograph of the abdomen shows distended loops of small bowel, with no stool in the distal colon or rectum. The patient is hospitalized for bowel rest and intravenous hydration. What is the next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 26-year-old man with testicular cancer who is receiving chemotherapy is evaluated in the emergency department. His temperature is 38.9 °C (102 °F), and he complains of feeling flushed and tired. He has an indwelling central venous port, but there are no localizing symptoms to suggest a source of infection. Chest radiograph shows no abnormalities. The patients hemoglobin is 8.9 gIdL; the absolute neutrophil count is 165/μL and the platelet count is 56,000/μL. Results of other laboratory studies and urinalysis are within normal limits. Blood samples are obtained from a peripheral vein and through the port and sent for culture; a urine culture is also ordered. The patient is hospitalized and intravenous ceftazidime is initiated. Three days later, the patient‟s temperature is 37.8 °C (100 °F) and absolute neutrophil count is 4504/μL; his clinical condition is otherwise stable. Results of blood and urine cultures are negative. A repeat chest radiograph is normal, and blood and urine speci
• A 45-year-old woman is evaluated because of a palpable 2-cm right axillary lymph node. The lymph node is completely resected, and histologic study shows adenocarcinoma; hormone receptors are negative. Bilateral mammography is negative, as is MRI of the right breast. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for tumor, and no further lymphadenopathy is detected. Results of bone scan and MRI of the head are also unremarkable. The patient had been previously healthy and has never smoked. Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?