580+ Information systems and engineering economics Solved MCQs

1.

An in depth study on a single organisation using a variety of data collection methods is known as

A. case study
B. field survey
C. field survey
D. laboratory experiment
Answer» A. case study
2.

The method of research that gathers data about perceptions, feelings, opinions through interviews and questionnaires in their actual work setting is known as

A. case study
B. field survey
C. field experiment
D. laboratory experiment
Answer» B. field survey
3.

The consistency of data obtained from a particular research method is known as

A. reliability
B. validity
C. credibility
D. casuality
Answer» A. reliability
4.

The degree to which a research method actually measures what it is supposed to measure is known as

A. reliability
B. validity
C. credibility
D. casuality
Answer» B. validity
5.

Managing the human resource is

A. the smallest department in an organisation
B. better managed outside the organisation
C. vital for the success of an organisation
D. an unnecessary expense
Answer» C. vital for the success of an organisation
6.

A method of helping is to understand management and organisational behaviour is to look at                  that has been done before

A. experiments
B. research
C. management
D. behaviour
Answer» B. research
7.

Impersonal treatment of people through consistent application of rules and decisions to prevent favouritism is part of

A. equity theory
B. motivation theory
C. leadership theory
D. bureaucracy theory
Answer» D. bureaucracy theory
8.

People who work in the Human resource department should have a knowledge of

A. organisational behaviour
B. finance
C. it
D. marketing
Answer» A. organisational behaviour
9.

What must entrepreneurs and leaders learn in order to have a successful organisation?

A. how to control people and manipulate organisational systems
B. how to think strategically, influence people, develop organisational systems
C. how to manage technical details and use current business jargon
D. how to read balance sheets and income statements.
Answer» B. how to think strategically, influence people, develop organisational systems
10.

Organisational success in providing a service or a product depends on

A. doing product development faster than anyone else
B. being the cheapest in the market
C. having the first product or service in the market place
D. the product or service being valued by a segment of society
Answer» D. the product or service being valued by a segment of society
11.

An organisation's mission is

A. the fundamental purpose of an organisation
B. articulated in such a way that it defines the business of the enterprise
C. a concept for unifying the efforts of organisational members
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
12.

Which must be accomplished first by the entrepreneur or leader?

A. the design of a rational organisation structure
B. generating profits
C. making viable the concept for which the organisation was founded
D. establishing policies that assure consistency of activities
Answer» C. making viable the concept for which the organisation was founded
13.

Definable groups of people who have an economic and/or social interest in the organisation are called

A. stakeholders
B. employees
C. managers
D. all of the above
Answer» A. stakeholders
14.

Governance policies, rules, as well as authority structures apply to which key resource element of the organisation?

A. technology
B. organisational culture
C. organisation
D. people
Answer» C. organisation
15.

Productivity is a ratio of outputs (products or services) to                      .

A. profits generated
B. sales price
C. inputs consumed
D. behaviour effectiveness
Answer» C. inputs consumed
16.

"Doing the right things" is referred to as                      .

A. effectiveness
B. efficiency
C. productivity
D. profitability
Answer» A. effectiveness
17.

Revitalization involves                the strategies, resources, technology, and skills of the organisation.

A. focusing
B. categorizing
C. formalizing
D. renewing
Answer» D. renewing
18.

What is the relationship between satisfaction and productivity, as suggested by research?

A. high satisfaction leads to high productivity
B. productivity does not influence satisfaction
C. moderate satisfaction results in low productivity
D. productivity often leads to satisfaction
Answer» D. productivity often leads to satisfaction
19.

Satisfaction is defined as positive feelings people have about an organisation whether as a/an

A. supplier, employee, customer, or regulator
B. employer, customer, regulator, or supplier
C. investor or stockbroker
D. none of the above
Answer» A. supplier, employee, customer, or regulator
20.

Management is the practice of

A. recruiting and motivating talented people to work for your organisation
B. increasing a firm\s revenues and cutting costs to maximize profits
C. directing, organizing, and developing people, technology, and financial resources
D. mastering political behaviours so that the fittest survive and rise to the top
Answer» C. directing, organizing, and developing people, technology, and financial resources
21.

Productivity ultimately depends on both

A. efficiency and effectiveness
B. infrastructure and culture
C. people and money
D. satisfaction and revitalization
Answer» A. efficiency and effectiveness
22.

What is planning?

A. the process of establishing objectives and specifying how they are to be accomplished in an uncertain future
B. the process of evaluating whether outcomes match objectives and, if not, taking corrective action
C. the pattern of managing actions that focus resources and core competence on achieving a sustained competitive advantage
D. determining a workable fit between organisational competencies and limitations on the one hand and opportunities and threats on the other
Answer» A. the process of establishing objectives and specifying how they are to be accomplished in an uncertain future
23.

What is the process of managerial control or controlling?

A. the process of establishing objectives and specifying how they are to be accomplished in an uncertain future
B. the process of evaluating whether outcomes match objectives and, if not, taking corrective action
C. the pattern of managing actions that focus resources and core competence on achieving a sustained competitive advantage
D. determining a workable fit between organisational competencies and limitations on the one hand and opportunities and threats on the other
Answer» B. the process of evaluating whether outcomes match objectives and, if not, taking corrective action
24.

What is competitive strategy?

A. the process of establishing objectives and specifying how they are to be accomplished in an uncertain future
B. the process of evaluating whether outcomes match objectives and, if not, taking corrective action
C. the pattern of managing actions that focus resources and core competence on achieving a sustained competitive advantage
D. planning actions at the line of business level about where and how to compete
Answer» D. planning actions at the line of business level about where and how to compete
25.

The process of strategic thinking most involves what?

A. the process of establishing objectives and specifying how they are to be accomplished in an uncertain future
B. the process of evaluating whether outcomes match objectives and, if not, taking corrective action
C. the pattern of managing actions that focus resources and core competence on achieving a sustained competitive advantage
D. determining a workable fit between organisational competencies and limitations on the one hand and opportunities and threats on the other
Answer» D. determining a workable fit between organisational competencies and limitations on the one hand and opportunities and threats on the other
26.

At what organisational level is it necessary to balance strategic actions with environmental and resource conditions?

A. departmental
B. middle management
C. corporate
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
27.

When setting key objectives, managers first seek to articulate

A. results that will achieve the earnings per share target of the external market analysts
B. results that can be achieved with modest commitment of incremental resources
C. mission consistent measurable results to be achieved within a specified future time frame
D. sales forecasts that will generate sufficient revenue to increase global market share
Answer» C. mission consistent measurable results to be achieved within a specified future time frame
28.

Managing strategy involves the craft of

A. deciding on bold courses of action that pulls the enterprise in new directions
B. balancing stability and consistency over time with changes when needed
C. defending established products to make it difficult for rivals to imitate
D. stimulating the creativity of managers and engineers to improve
Answer» B. balancing stability and consistency over time with changes when needed
29.

An organisation's plans are usually most specific at what level?

A. the top
B. the middle
C. the bottom
D. they should be essentially equal in specificity at all levels of the organisation
Answer» D. they should be essentially equal in specificity at all levels of the organisation
30.

When control systems are used to their fullest, they

A. catch individuals who are inefficient
B. lead to continuous improvement
C. produce conformity to standards
D. provide merit rewards for high performers
Answer» B. lead to continuous improvement
31.

operational decisions are

A. decision made by managers that have a medium term scope
B. based on aggregate data and impact the activities for the medium term that could range from the next few days/weeks/ months
C. both a and b
D. none of the above
Answer» C. both a and b
32.

Types of Communication are

A. synchronous and asynchronous communication
B. simplex communication
C. full duplex and half duplex communication
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
33.

FOIS stands for

A. freight operation information system
B. fixed operation information system
C. first operation information system
D. none of the above
Answer» A. freight operation information system
34.

CMS stands for

A. client management system
B. crew management system
C. customer management system
D. none of the above
Answer» B. crew management system
35.

ICMS stands for

A. international coaching management system
B. internal coaching management system
C. integrated coaching management system
D. none of the above
Answer» C. integrated coaching management system
36.

The term used to describe those people whose jobs involve sponsoring and funding the project to develop, operate, and maintain the information system is

A. information worker
B. internal system user
C. systems owner
D. external system user
Answer» C. systems owner
37.

If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to record student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an

A. crm
B. intranet
C. erp
D. extranet
Answer» B. intranet
38.

Which of the following is not a technology driver for an information system?

A. enterprise applications
B. object technologies
C. knowledge asset management
D. collaborative technologies
Answer» C. knowledge asset management
39.

Which of the following is a deliverable of the system implementation phase in a formal system development process?

A. technical hardware and software solution for the business problem
B. business problem statement
C. statement of the system users’ business requirements
D. none of the above
Answer» A. technical hardware and software solution for the business problem
40.

When a bank offers web self-service for customers to answer their questions, the primary outcome is:

A. adds value
B. manages risks
C. reduces costs
D. none of the above
Answer» C. reduces costs
41.

The general transformation cycle for information is:

A. information to data to knowledge
B. data to information to knowledge
C. knowledge to data to information
D. none of the above
Answer» B. data to information to knowledge
42.

The most important attribute of information quality that a manager requires is:

A. relevance
B. media
C. presentation
D. none of the above
Answer» A. relevance
43.

To improve the performance of a business process, which of the following is most relevant?

A. input
B. processing
C. control and feedback
D. all of the above
Answer» C. control and feedback
44.

The majority of publically available Internet information sources are:

A. created in xml
B. structured information
C. normal information
D. unstructured information
Answer» D. unstructured information
45.

Records management:

A. is a discipline limited to digitised paper documents
B. is a discipline limited to library books
C. 3. is a discipline limited to paper documents
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
46.

Which of the following statements describes a taxonomy?

A. a browsable hierarchy
B. a list of equivalent terms
C. a complex controlled vocabulary showing relationships
Answer» A. a browsable hierarchy
47.

Information systems that support the business functions that reach out to suppliers are known as:

A. back office information systems
B. expert information systems
C. front office information systems
D. none of the above
Answer» A. back office information systems
48.

Which is not a typical business function?

A. manufacturing
B. benefits and compensation
C. sales
D. services
Answer» B. benefits and compensation
49.

Project Management ensures that

A. project’s risk is assessed
B. project’s feasibility is assessed
C. system is developed at minimum cost
D. both a and b
Answer» C. system is developed at minimum cost
50.

IT has impacts as

A. first order
B. second order
C. third order
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
51.

A centralised system keeps decision making firmly at the top of the hierarchy

A. true
B. false
C. not applicable
D. don’t know
Answer» A. true
52.

Centralised IT management system best suited for

A. small sized organization
B. large sized organization
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
Answer» A. small sized organization
53.

Decentralised IT management system best suited for

A. small sized organization
B. large sized organization
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
Answer» B. large sized organization
54.

Centralised IT management system has

A. inadequate control over the organization
B. considerable control over the organization
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
Answer» A. inadequate control over the organization
55.

Decentralised IT management system has

A. inadequate control over the organization
B. considerable control over the organization
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
Answer» B. considerable control over the organization
56.

Information systems support an organization's business operations, managerial decision making and strategic competitive advantage. Such system is called

A. business process reengineering
B. competitive advantage
C. competitive advantage
D. roles of information systems
Answer» D. roles of information systems
57.

The document listing all procedure and regulations that generally govern an organization is the

A. administrative policy manual
B. personal policy book
C. procedures log
D. organization manual
Answer» D. organization manual
58.

Centralised IT management system has

A. vertical communication flow
B. open tree communication flow
C. normal communication flow
D. none of the above
Answer» A. vertical communication flow
59.

Decentralised IT management system has

A. vertical communication flow
B. open tree communication flow
C. normal communication flow
D. none of the above
Answer» B. open tree communication flow
60.

Advantage of Centralised IT management system is

A. proper coordination and leadership
B. sharing of burden and responsibility
C. no advantage
D. none of the above
Answer» A. proper coordination and leadership
61.

Advantage of Decentralised IT management system is

A. proper coordination and leadership
B. sharing of burden and responsibility
C. no advantage
D. none of the above
Answer» B. sharing of burden and responsibility
62.

In Centralised IT management system, power of decision making:

A. lies with top management
B. multiple person have the power
C. employee has the power
D. none of the above
Answer» A. lies with top management
63.

In Deentralised IT management system, power of decision making:

A. lies with top management
B. multiple person have the power
C. employee has the power
D. none of the above
Answer» B. multiple person have the power
64.

Standardisation implies that all components, physical and software ,which are used to create the IT infrastructure across the organization

A. are of same type and follow the same standard.
B. are of different type and follow the different standard.
C. are of same type but follow the different standard.
D. none of the above
Answer» A. are of same type and follow the same standard.
65.

Virus is a

A. malicious program that spreads automatically
B. piece of code that attaches itself to legitimate program
C. both a and b
D. none of the above
Answer» B. piece of code that attaches itself to legitimate program
66.

Worm is a

A. malicious program that spreads automatically
B. piece of code that attaches itself to legitimate program
C. both a and b
D. none of the above
Answer» A. malicious program that spreads automatically
67.

Virus:

A. modifies the code
B. destructive in a nature
C. both a and b
D. replicate itself
Answer» C. both a and b
68.

Worm:

A. doesn\t modifies the code
B. doesn\t replicate itself
C. both a and b
D. destructive in a nature
Answer» A. doesn\t modifies the code
69.

□The IT infrastructure consists of broad categories of components:

A. hardware
B. software
C. networks
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
70.

RFID stands for

A. random frequencyidentification
B. radio frequencyidentification
C. rare frequencyidentification
D. radio firewallidentification
Answer» B. radio frequencyidentification
71.

NMEICT stands for:

A. national mission on education through ict
B. national mission one-governance throughict
C. national mission one-commerce throughict
D. national mission on e-learning through ict
Answer» A. national mission on education through ict
72.

Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?

A. (1) mail join
B. (2) mail copy
C. (3) mail insert
D. (4) mail merge
Answer» D. (4) mail merge
73.

If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

A. (1) 110011
B. (2) 110010
C. (3) 110001
D. (4) 110100
Answer» A. (1) 110011
74.

The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as

A. (1) burning
B. (2) zipping
C. (3) digitizing
D. (4) ripping
Answer» A. (1) burning
75.

DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for

A. (1) digital vector disc
B. (2) digital volume disc
C. (3) digital versatile disc
D. (4) digital visualization disc
Answer» C. (3) digital versatile disc
76.

What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities?

A. (1) ultra security block
B. (2) universal security block
C. (3) universal serial bus
D. (4) united serial bus
Answer» C. (3) universal serial bus
77.

A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous Laptop models.Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

A. (1) universal serial bus mouse
B. (2) faster random access memory
C. (3) blu ray drive
D. (4) solid state hard drive
Answer» D. (4) solid state hard drive
78.

Who among the following had established UIDAI by passing Aadhaar Act, 2016

A. state government
B. government of indi
C. registrars
D. enrolment agency
Answer» B. government of indi
79.

When was UIDAI established as Statutory Authority under Ministry of Electronics and I.T ?

A. 28th january, 2009
B. 29th september, 201
C. 12th september, 2015
D. 12th july, 2016
Answer» D. 12th july, 2016
80.

Which organisation is responsible for issuing UID?

A. election commission
B. planning commissio
C. meity
D. uidai
Answer» D. uidai
81.

Why was UIDAI created ?

A. to provide robust technology to eliminate duplicate andfake identities, and
B. to provide identity that can be verified and authenticatedin an easy, costeffective way
C. to make another identification document
D. both 1 & 2
Answer» D. both 1 & 2
82.

When was the Aadhaar Enrolment /Update Regulation 2016 published in official gazettee

A. 28th january, 2009
B. 29th september, 201
C. 12th july, 2016
D. 12th september 2017
Answer» D. 12th september 2017
83.

is any entity authorised or recognised by the Authority for the purpose of enrolling individuals through Enrolment Agency.

A. introducer
B. enrolling agency
C. agency
D. registrar
Answer» D. registrar
84.

is any entity engaged by the Registrar for the purpose of enrolling individuals.

A. introducer
B. enrolment agency
C. supervisor/oper ator
D. registrar
Answer» B. enrolment agency
85.

The Verifier/Certifier is the personnel appointed by                for verification of documents at enrolment centres.

A. operator
B. introducer
C. registrars
D. enrolling agency
Answer» C. registrars
86.

is the place where the Aadhaar Enrolment/Update is conducted by Certified Operator/Supervisor

A. enrolment center
B. exam center
C. hospital
D. school
Answer» A. enrolment center
87.

is a certified personnel employed by Enrolment Agencies to execute the process of enrolment /update at the enrolment centers

A. enrolment operator
B. enrolment supervis
C. introducer
D. both 1 & 2
Answer» B. enrolment supervis
88.

Who among the following ensures that only trained and certified persons handle the enrolment/update process?

A. uidai
B. operator
C. supervisor
D. enrolment agency
Answer» D. enrolment agency
89.

is responsible to conduct the Certification exam for the role of Operator/Supervisor

A. introducer
B. enrolment agency
C. testing and certificationagency
D. registrar
Answer» C. testing and certificationagency
90.

is a person registered with the Registrar and Authority who confirms the identity of a person who does not have any valid POI and POA.

A. operator
B. introducer
C. enrolling agency
D. agency
Answer» B. introducer
91.

Enrolment Identification Number (EID) is      -a digit number allocated to residents at the time of enrolment.

A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 28
Answer» D. 28
92.

Resident is an individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to       days or more in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of application for Aadhaar Enrolment/Update.

A. 32
B. 61
C. 123
D. 182
Answer» D. 182
93.

Which of the following contact numbers can a resident call for resolutions to their concerns or grievances related to Aadhaar?

A. 1947
B. 2009
C. 140
D. 108
Answer» A. 1947
94.

Which of the following is NOT a component of enrollment setup?

A. computer
B. biometric device
C. bomb detector
D. iris scanner
Answer» C. bomb detector
95.

Aadhaar uses which of the given to uniquely identify the resident?

A. name and address of th
B. fingerprints
C. iris
D. both 2 & 3
Answer» D. both 2 & 3
96.

is a document to convey the Aadhaar number to a resident.

A. aadhaar letter
B. cidr
C. uid
D. aadhaar number
Answer» A. aadhaar letter
97.

Record date of birth of the resident, indicating day, month and                      in the relevant field.

A. initial
B. surname
C. year
D. name
Answer» C. year
98.

has to be recorded by the Enrolment Agency as declared by the enrollee in the box provided by recording Male, Female or Transgender.

A. date of birth
B. gender
C. residential address
D. fingerprint
Answer» B. gender
99.

Which of the following is used to retrieve pre-enrolment data?

A. pre-enrolment id
B. one time password
C. resident's name
D. aadhaar id
Answer» A. pre-enrolment id
100.

The factors of time and                   are the defining aspects of any engineering economic decisions

A. uncertainty
B. certainty
Answer» A. uncertainty
Tags
Question and answers in Information systems and engineering economics, Information systems and engineering economics multiple choice questions and answers, Information systems and engineering economics Important MCQs, Solved MCQs for Information systems and engineering economics, Information systems and engineering economics MCQs with answers PDF download