390+ Irrigation Engineering Solved MCQs

1.

Which of the following methods of applying water may be used on rolling land ?

A. boarder flooding
B. check flooding
C. furrow flooding
D. free flooding
Answer» A. boarder flooding
2.

The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between

A. 0 to 10
B. 10 to 18
C. 18 to 26
D. 26 to 34
Answer» C. 18 to 26
3.

Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is

A. 135 mm
B. 165 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 215 mm
Answer» C. 190 mm
4.

Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 Milli equivalent per litre respectively will be classified as

A. low sodium water
B. medium sodium water
C. high sodium water
D. very high sodium water
Answer» B. medium sodium water
5.

The duty is largest

A. at the head of water course
B. on the field
C. at the head of a main canal
D. same at all places
Answer» B. on the field
6.

The "outlet discharge factor" is the duty at the head of

A. main canal
B. branch canal
C. watercourse
D. distributory
Answer» C. watercourse
7.

The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will be

A. 637 hectares/m3/sec
B. 837 hectares/m3/sec
C. 972 hectares/m3/sec
D. 1172 hectares/m3/sec
Answer» A. 637 hectares/m3/sec
8.

For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of

A. rabi or kharif
B. rabi and kharif or sugarcane
C. rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
D. rabi or kharif or sugarcane
Answer» C. rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
9.

The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field is known as

A. water conveyance efficiency
B. water application efficiency
C. water use efficiency
D. none of the above
Answer» B. water application efficiency
10.

The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of

A. gravity water
B. capillary water
C. hydroscopic water
D. chemical water
Answer» B. capillary water
11.

The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth is called

A. effective rainfall
B. consumptive use
C. consumptive irrigation requirement
D. net irrigation requirement
Answer» C. consumptive irrigation requirement
12.

With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops

A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant
D. increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
Answer» D. increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
13.

Hydrograph is the graphical representation of

A. runoff and time
B. surface runoff and time
C. ground waterflow and time
D. rainfall and time
Answer» A. runoff and time
14.

Infiltration rate is always

A. more than the infiltration capacity
B. less than the infiltration capacity
C. equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
D. equal to or more than the infiltration capacity
Answer» C. equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
15.

The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is called

A. hygroscopic water
B. equivalent moisture
C. soil moisture deficiency
D. pellicular water
Answer» C. soil moisture deficiency
16.

Infiltration capacity

A. is a constant factor
B. changes with time
C. changes with location
D. changes with both time and location
Answer» D. changes with both time and location
17.

Infiltration is the

A. movement of water through the soil
B. absorption of water by soil surface
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» A. movement of water through the soil
18.

If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be

A. equal to rate of rainfall
B. equal to infiltration capacity
C. more than rate of rainfall
D. more than infiltration capacity
Answer» B. equal to infiltration capacity
19.

Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to

A. pressure difference
B. temperature difference
C. natural topographical barriers
D. all of the above
Answer» A. pressure difference
20.

Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?

A. tipping bucket type raingauge
B. Simon's raingauge
C. Steven's weighing type raingauge
D. floating type raingauge
Answer» B. Simon's raingauge
21.

A raingauge should preferably be fixed

A. near the building
B. under the tree
C. in an open space
D. in a closed space
Answer» C. in an open space
22.

Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas ?

A. tipping bucket type
B. weighing type
C. floating type
D. Simon's raingauge
Answer» A. tipping bucket type
23.

Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if
i) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is increased
ii) velocity of wind is decreased
iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased The correct answer is

A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i). (ii) and (iii)
Answer» B. (i) and (iii)
24.

A 70% index of wetness means

A. rain excess of 30%
B. rain deficiency of 30%
C. rain deficiency of 70%
D. none of the above
Answer» B. rain deficiency of 30%
25.

Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of evaporation ?

A. flat water surface
B. convex water surface
C. concave water surface
D. independent of shape of water surface
Answer» B. convex water surface
26.

Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas.
Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep.
Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below :

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer» A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
27.

When surface of transpiration is submerged under water, then potential evapotranspiration is

A. much more than evapotranspiration
B. much less than evapotranspiration
C. equal to evapotranspiration
D. equal to or less than evapotr
Answer» A. much more than evapotranspiration
28.

Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is

A. cubic metre/sec
B. metre/sec
C. cubic metre
D. square metre
Answer» A. cubic metre/sec
29.

The runoff increases with

A. increase in intensity of rain
B. increase in infiltration capacity
C. increase in permeability of soil
D. all of the above
Answer» A. increase in intensity of rain
30.

The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be

A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 56 cm
D. 60 cm
Answer» C. 56 cm
31.

A current meter is used to measure the

A. velocity of flow of water
B. depth of flow of water
C. discharge
D. none of the above
Answer» A. velocity of flow of water
32.

If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be

A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer» D. 60 minutes
33.

The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be

A. 50 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 140 mm
Answer» C. 90 mm
34.

The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be

A. 70mm
B. 80mm
C. 90 mm
D. 105 mm
Answer» A. 70mm
35.

The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is

A. 1 hour
B. one-fourth of basin lag
C. one-half of basin lag
D. equal to basin lag
Answer» B. one-fourth of basin lag
36.

The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by

A. direct runoff volume
B. period of storm
C. total rainfall
D. none of the above
Answer» A. direct runoff volume
37.

The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms of

A. same duration only
B. same and shorter duration
C. same and longer duration
D. any duration
Answer» D. any duration
38.

S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of

A. shorter duration from longer duration
B. longer duration from shorter duration
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» C. both (a) and (b)
39.

The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by

A. PT = 1
B. PT2 = 1
C. P/T = 1
D. P/T2 = 1
Answer» A. PT = 1
40.

Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are

A. M°L°T°
B. rvfL'T"1
C. M° L2 T1
D. M'LV
Answer» C. M° L2 T1
41.

If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k and transmissible T is given by

A. T = kd
B. T = k/d
C. T= Vkd
D. k= VTd
Answer» A. T = kd
42.

An artesian aquifer is the one where

A. water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure
B. water is under pressure between two impervious strata
C. water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation
D. none of the above
Answer» B. water is under pressure between two impervious strata
43.

A deep well

A. is always deeper than a shallow well
B. has more discharge than a shallow well
C. is weaker structurally than a shallow well
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer» B. has more discharge than a shallow well
44.

A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is

A. designed for one purpose but serves more than one purpose
B. planned and constructed to serve various purposes
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» B. planned and constructed to serve various purposes
45.

The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between

A. minimum pool level and maximum pool level
B. minimum pool level and normal pool level
C. normal pool level and maximum pool level
D. river bed and minimum pool level
Answer» B. minimum pool level and normal pool level
46.

The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called

A. useful storage
B. dead storage
C. valley storage
D. surcharge storage
Answer» B. dead storage
47.

For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to

A. useful storage - valley storage
B. useful storage + surcharge storage
C. useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage
D. useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage
Answer» D. useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage
48.

Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of

A. capacity/inflow ratio
B. capacity/outflow ratio
C. outflow/inflow ratio
D. none of the above
Answer» A. capacity/inflow ratio
49.

The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after

A. 50 years
B. 150 years
C. 200 years
D. 250 years
Answer» A. 50 years
50.

The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under empty reservoir condition, are
i) Water pressure
ii) Self weight
iii) Uplift
iv) Pressure due to earthquake
The correct answer is

A. Only (ii)
B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer» A. Only (ii)
51.

When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be (where w is unit weight of water and H is the depth of water.)

A. 0 and wH212
B. wH2/2and wH2/3
C. wH and 0
D. OandwII
Answer» D. OandwII
52.

The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by
i) constructing cutoff under upstream face
ii) constructing drainage channels bet-ween the dam and its foundation
iii) by pressure grouting in foundation
The corret answer is

A. only (i)
B. both (i) and (ii)
C. both (i) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer» D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
53.

The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as

A. hydrostatic pressure at toe
B. average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
C. two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
D. none of the above
Answer» C. two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
54.

Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in

A. hydrodynamic pressure
B. inertia force into the body of the dam
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» C. both (a) and (b)
55.

Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of

A. 3H/47I above the base
B. 3H747t below the water surface
C. 4H/371 above the base
D. 4H737t below the water surface where H is the depth of water.
Answer» C. 4H/371 above the base
56.

The major resisting force in a gravity dam is

A. water pressure
B. wave pressure
C. self-weight of dam
D. uplift pressure
Answer» C. self-weight of dam
57.

When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced

A. at the toe
B. at the heel
C. within the middle third of base
D. at centre of base
Answer» A. at the toe
58.

The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is

A. B/2
B. B/3
C. B/4
D. B/6
Answer» D. B/6
59.

Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
i) increases the principal stress
ii) decreases the principal stress
iii) increases the shear stress
iv) decreases the shear stress
The correct answer is

A. (i) and (iii)
B. (i)and(iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer» D. (ii) and (iv)
60.

For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to (where hw is height of wave.)

A. 0.5 hw
B. 0.75 hw
C. 1.25 hw
D. 1.50 hw
Answer» D. 1.50 hw
61.

As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams

A. are costlier
B. are less susceptible to failure
C. require sound rock foundations
D. require less skilled labour
Answer» D. require less skilled labour
62.

The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is

A. clay
B. coarse sand
C. silty clay
D. clay mixed with fine sand
Answer» D. clay mixed with fine sand
63.

Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by

A. drainage filters
B. relief wells
C. drain trenches
D. provision of downstream berms
Answer» C. drain trenches
64.

Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing

A. rock toe
B. horizontal blanket
C. impervious cut off
D. chimney drain
Answer» C. impervious cut off
65.

The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are

A. at right angle and parallel to weir crest
B. parallel and at right angle to weir crest
C. parallel to weir crest in both
D. at right angle to weir crest in both
Answer» A. at right angle and parallel to weir crest
66.

The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by (where, L is effective length of spillway crest and H is the total head over the spillway crest including velocity head.)

A. CLH3/2
B. CHL3/2
C. CLH5/2
D. CLH1/2
Answer» A. CLH3/2
67.

Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway

A. depends on depth of approach and upstream slope
B. depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
C. remains constant
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer» D. both (a) and (b)
68.

Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?

A. ogee spillway
B. chute spillway
C. side channel spillway
D. shaft spillway
Answer» A. ogee spillway
69.

In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is

A. straight drop spillway
B. shaft spillway
C. chute spillway
D. ogee spillway
Answer» B. shaft spillway
70.

In a chute spillway, the flow is usually

A. uniform
B. subcritical
C. critical
D. super critical
Answer» D. super critical
71.

For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is

A. sudden drawdown
B. steady seepage
C. during construction
D. sloughing of slope
Answer» A. sudden drawdown
72.

If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be

A. one divide wall and one undersluice
B. one divide wall and two undersluices
C. two divide walls and one undersluice
D. two divide walls and two undersluices
Answer» D. two divide walls and two undersluices
73.

Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because

A. it ensures less length of the weir
B. it gives better discharging capacity
C. it is economical
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
74.

The main function of a divide wall is to

A. control the silt entry in the canal
B. prevent river floods from entering the canal
C. separate the undersluices from weir proper
D. provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
Answer» C. separate the undersluices from weir proper
75.

A divide wall is provided

A. at right angle to the axis of weir
B. parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
C. parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it
D. at an inclination to the axis of weir
Answer» A. at right angle to the axis of weir
76.

As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is kept at

A. lower level
B. higher level
C. same level
D. any of the above depending on the design
Answer» A. lower level
77.

Silt excluders are constructed on the

A. river bed upstream of head regulator
B. river bed downstream of head regulator
C. canal bed upstream of head regulator
D. canal bed downstream of head regulator
Answer» A. river bed upstream of head regulator
78.

According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is

A. 0
B. unity
C. infinity
D. very large
Answer» C. infinity
79.

The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by

A. 4RS
B. 11 RS
C. 7RS
D. 15 RS
Answer» B. 11 RS
80.

The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is

A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. equal to zero
Answer» C. greater than 1
81.

If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is

A. 0.5 xc
B. 0.75 TC
C. xc
D. 1.33 TC
Answer» B. 0.75 TC
82.

As per Lacey's theory, the silt factor is

A. directly proportional to average par¬ticle size
B. inversely proportional to average par¬ticle size
C. directly proportional to square root of average particle size
D. not related to average particle size
Answer» C. directly proportional to square root of average particle size
83.

Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey's theory will be

A. 19 m
B. 38m
C. 57m
D. 76m
Answer» B. 38m
84.

Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain ?

A. canal fall
B. canal outlet
C. canal escape
D. canal regulator
Answer» C. canal escape
85.

For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is

A. zero
B. between zero and 1
C. 1
D. greater than 1
Answer» C. 1
86.

The sensitivity of a rigid module is

A. zero
B. between zero and one
C. 1
D. infinity
Answer» A. zero
87.

Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?

A. submerged pipe outlet
B. Kennedy's gauge outlet
C. Gibb's outlet
D. none of the above
Answer» B. Kennedy's gauge outlet
88.

A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called

A. vertical dropfall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall
Answer» D. inglis fall
89.

Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?

A. vertical drop fall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall
Answer» C. Montague type fall
90.

In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto

A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs
Answer» C. 14 cumecs
91.

Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?

A. vertical drop fall
B. flumed glacis fall
C. unflumed glacis fall
D. all of the above
Answer» A. vertical drop fall
92.

Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto

A. 0.5 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 5.0 m
Answer» B. 1.5 m
93.

Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?

A. non-modular outlet
B. flexible outlet
C. rigid module
D. none of the above
Answer» C. rigid module
94.

The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called

A. proportionality
B. flexibility
C. setting
D. sensitivity
Answer» B. flexibility
95.

The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in

A. aqueduct and syphon aqueduct
B. aqueduct and super passage
C. super passage and canal syphon
D. level crossing
Answer» C. super passage and canal syphon
96.

If the R.L's of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be

A. aqueduct
B. superpassage
C. syphon
D. syphon aqueduct
Answer» C. syphon
97.

The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when

A. high flood drainage discharge is small
B. high flood drainage discharge is large and short lived
C. high flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time
D. none of the above
Answer» A. high flood drainage discharge is small
98.

An aggrading river is a

A. silting river
B. scouring river
C. both silting and scouring river
D. neither silting nor scouring river
Answer» A. silting river
99.

Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of

A. meander belt to meander length
B. meander length to meander belt
C. curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
D. direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel
Answer» C. curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
100.

The meander pattern of a river is developed by

A. average discharge
B. dominant discharge
C. maximum discharge
D. critical discharge
Answer» B. dominant discharge
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