Obstetrics solved MCQs

1 of 3

1. Which is the least frequent site of an ectopic pregnancy?

a. Fallopian tube

B. Cervix

c. Ovary

d. Abdominal cavity

e. Between the leaves of broad ligament

2. Perforation tends to occur earliest when an ectopic pregnancy is located in whichportion of fallopian tube ?

a. Isthmic

B. Interstitial

c. Ampullary

d. Infundibular

e. No difference

3. Which of the following does not occur in post partum pituitary necrosis :

a. signs of hypoglycaemia

B. Asthenia

c. Amenorrhoea

d. Galactorrhoea

e. Decreased libido

4. The most dangerous symptom during pregnancy is:

a. PV bleeding

B. Ankle swelling

c. Hyperemesis

d. Cramps

e. none

5. The Arius-Stella reaction may be seen with all except :

a. Ectopic pregnancy

B. Birth control pills

c. Abortion

d. Trophoblastic disease

e. none

6. The passage of decidual cast in cases of ectopic pregnancy usually means :

a. Impending tubal rupture

B. Reabsorption of embryo

c. Pregnancy was intrauterine

d. Death of embryo

e. none

7. What is the most common side effect with MTX therapy for ectopic pregnancy

a. Transient pelvic pain 3 - 7 days after starting treatment

B. Stomatitis

c. Bone marrow suppression

d. Gastritis

e. none

8. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of thefollowing, except:

a. Amniotic fluid

B. Maternal blood

c. Chorionic villi

d. Fetal blood

e. none

9. A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by;

a. Immediate cesarean section

B. Immediate induction of labor

c. Tocolytic therapy

d. Magnesium sulphate therapy

e. none

10. Placenta previa, all true except :

a. Shock out of proportion of bleeding

B. Malpresentation

c. Head not engaged

d. Painless bleeding

e. none

11. A 34wk GA lady presented with vaginal bleeding of an amount more of that of her normal cycle. O/E uterine contracts every 4 min, bulged membrane, the cervix is 3 cm dilated, fetus is in a high transverse lie and the placenta is on the posterior fundus. US showed translucency behind the placenta and the CTG (Cardiotocography) showed FHR of 170, the best line of management is:

a. C/S immediately.

B. give oxytocin.

c. do rupture of the membrane.

d. amniocentisis

e. none

12. Most important cause of immediate post partum hemorrhage:

a. laceration of cervix

B. laceration of vagina

c. uterine atony

d. placental fragment retention

e. none

13. Factors favoring long anterior rotation include all except

a. Correction of the deflexion

B. Adequate pelvis

c. good pelvic floor

d. rupture of membranes

e. none

14. All following are indications for CS in OP except

a. Persistent oblique op

B. Long anterior rotation

c. Deep transverse arrest

d. Contracted pelvis

e. none

15. Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?

a. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin B12

c. Vitamin A

d. Folic acid

e. none

16. Uterine inertia is due to EXCEPT?

a. Over distension of uterus

B. Presence of fibroid uterus

c. Fetal malpresentations

d. Abruptio placenta

e. repeated interautrine manipulation

17. Exposure of female fetus to androgens may arrest differentiation of :

a. Mullerian duct

B. Ovary

c. Urogenital sinus

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

18. The risk for development of fetal macrosomia is increased in the following,EXCEPT:

a. Primiparity.

B. Diabetes with pregnancy.

c. Post-term pregnancy.

d. Prior macrosomic infants.

e. none

19. Complications of the third stage of labor include all of the following except :

a. Rupture uterus.

B. Postpartum hemorrhage.

c. Puerperal sepsis.

d. Retained placenta.

e. Obstetric shock.

20. Shock is out of proportion to the amount of bleeding in :

a. 1ry postpartum haemorrhage

B. Retained placenta

c. Acute puerperal inversion of uterus

d. Hypofibrinogenemia

e. none

21. The gold standard in diagnosing ectopic pregnancy

a. Laparoscopy

B. Culdocenteris

c. Beta HCG

d. US

e. Progesterone

22. Which method of terminating a molar gestation is never indicated

a. Suction curettage

B. Prostaglandic

c. Hypertonicsaline

d. Hysterotomy

e. Hyterectomy

23. Invasive molar tissue is most commonly found in

a. Myometrium

B. Vaginal wall

c. Ovary

d. Liver

e. Lungs

24. A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a. Contact psychiatry to evaluate the patient

B. Contact the hospital lawyers to get a court order for cesarean delivery

c. Perform cesarean delivery at 38 weeks

d. Perform cesarean delivery once the patient is in labor

e. Respect the patient's decision and perform the vaginal delivery

25. A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a. Administer general anesthesia

B. Administer terbutaline

c. Perform amnioinfusion

d. Start oxytocin

e. Perform cesarean delivery

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