1750+ Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) Solved MCQs

901.

The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is –

A. 220
B. 200
C. 250
D. 240
Answer» C. 250
Explanation: Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories. Note : The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by the Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws have provision for 245 members. Maximum of 12 members can be nominated by president of India.
902.

The Ministers in the Union Government hold office during the pleasure of the –

A. Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Parliament
D. Prime Minister
Answer» B. President
Explanation: The President appoints the Prime Minister and the other members of the President. Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Council of Ministers remains in power during the 'pleasure' of the
903.

Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Finance Minister
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer» D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker thereon is final. The Speaker is under no obligation to consult any one in coming to a decision or in giving his certificate that a Bill is a Money Bill.
904.

The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union List only in consultation with the State Government for the State of –

A. Assam
B. Rajasthan
C. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Kerala
Answer» C. Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation: Article 370 of the Indian constitution grants special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. As per Article 370 of the Constitution of India, notwithstanding anything in. this Constitution: the power of Parliament to make laws for the said State shall be limited to those matters in the Union List and the Concurrent List which, in consultation with the Government of the State, are declared by the President to correspond to matters specified in the Instrument of Accession governing the accession of the State to the Dominion of India as the matters with respect to which the Dominion Legislature may make laws for that. State; and such other matters in the said Lists, as, with the concurrence of the Government of the Stale, the President may by order specify. This article specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communications, (matters specified in the instrument of accession) the Indian Parliament needs the State Government's concurrence for applying all other laws. Thus the state's residents lived under a separate set of laws, including those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as compared to other Indians.
905.

Who is the constitutional head of the Government of India?

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Attorney General
Answer» A. President
Explanation: The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India, the largest democracy in the world. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
906.

The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of Adhoc judges in:

A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. District and Session Court
D. All of these
Answer» A. Supreme Court
Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of Ad hoc judge in supreme court. A Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court to be designated by the Chief Justice of India.
907.

Which of the following “writs” of the High Court or the Supreme Court is sought to produce in the court a person, suspected to be missing/in custody?

A. Mandamus
B. Quo Warranto
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Certiorari
Answer» C. Habeas Corpus
Explanation: Habeas corpus means "you must present the person in court". It is a writ (legal action) which requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. This ensures that a prisoner can be released from unlawful detention, in other words, detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence. The remedy can be sought by the prisoner or by another person coming to the prisoner's aid. The legal right to apply for a habeas corpus is also called by the same name.
908.

From which of the following country Indian Constitution borrowed the feature ‘The written Constitution'?

A. USSR
B. UK
C. U.S.
D. Japan
Answer» C. U.S.
Explanation: The framers of Indian Constitution adopted the feature of 'written constitution' from USA. The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest written constitution in the world. The other features borrowed from the US Constitution include: an executive head of state known as President; provision of fundamental rights; independence of the judiciary; etc.
909.

The phrase equality before law used in Article 14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of -

A. Britain
B. USA
C. France
D. Canada
Answer» A. Britain
Explanation: The phrase equality before law of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from Britain. The term Republic and the idea of liberty, equality and fraternity in the preamble was borrowed from constitution of France.
910.

The source of the basic structure theory of the Constitution of India is -

A. the Constitution
B. opinion of jurists
C. indicial interpretation
D. parliamentary statutes
Answer» B. opinion of jurists
Explanation: Any articles can be amended under Article 368 which means the amendment challenged on the grounds of fact. The Supreme Court recognized interpretation is the basic structure of constitution.
911.

The Constitution of India contains –

A. 340 Articles
B. 395 Articles
C. 400 Articles
D. 404 Articles
Answer» B. 395 Articles
Explanation: Although the last article of the Constitution is Article 395, the total number, as of March 2012 is 448. New articles added through amendments have been inserted in the relevant location in the original constitution. In order not to disturb the original numbering, the new articles are inserted with alphanumberic enume-rations. For example, Article 21A pertaining to Right to Education was inserted by the 86th Amendment Act.
912.

Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?

A. British Constitution
B. US Constitution
C. Irish Constitution
D. The Government of India Act, 1935
Answer» D. The Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: The most profound influence was exercised by the Government of India Act of 1935. Such features as the federal scheme, office of governor, power of federal judiciary, emergency powers etc were drawn from this Act. The British practice influenced the lawmaking procedures, rule of law, system of single citizenship, besides, of course, the model of a parliamentary government. The US Constitution inspired details on the independence of judiciary, judicial review, fundamental rights, and the removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges. The Irish Constitution was the source of the Directive Principles, method of Presidential elections, and the nomination of members of Rajya Sabha by the President.
913.

Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Right to Freedom of Religion
Answer» C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Explanation: Dr. B R Arnbedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee, called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. Right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.
914.

The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are -

A. Population, affluence per person, land available per person
B. Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
C. Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
D. Population, forest cover and land available per person
Answer» B. Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
Explanation: The most important factors which determine the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are: Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources.
915.

The session of the parliament is summoned by -

A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer» A. The President
Explanation: The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
916.

The Constitution               .

A. is silent on the President's reelection to the office.
B. allows reelection of a person to the President's post
C. restricts a person to remain President for only two terms.
D. has been amended to allow a person only one term as President.
Answer» B. allows reelection of a person to the President's post
Explanation: According to Article 57 of the Constitution, a President is eligible for re- election to that office.The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
917.

The idea of 'Directive Principles of State Policy' was borrowed by the framers of the Indian Constitution from the Constitution of –

A. South Africa
B. the Republic of Germany
C. the Republic of Ireland
D. Canada
Answer» C. the Republic of Ireland
Explanation: The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Article 45 of the Irish Constitution outlines a number of broad principles of social and economic policy. Its provisions are, however, intended solely "for the general guidance of the Oireachtas", and "shall not be cognizable by any Court under any of the provisions of this Constitution."
918.

In the Constitution of India, the Fundamental Rights –

A. formed a part of the original Constitution
B. were added by the Fourth Amendment
C. were added by the Parliament in 152
D. were added under the Forty second Amendment
Answer» A. formed a part of the original Constitution
Explanation: The fundamental rights were included in the First Draft Constitution (February 1948), the Second Draft Constitution (17 October, 1948) and final Third Draft Constitution (26 November, 1949) prepared by the Drafting Committee. The fundamental rights were included in the constitution right from its beginning because they were considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity.
919.

Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the Constitution?

A. Right to Education
B. Right to work
C. Right to property
D. Right to Equality before Law
Answer» C. Right to property
Explanation: The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.
920.

Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by:

A. Pay Commission appointed by the President
B. Law Commission
C. Parliament
D. Council of Ministers
Answer» C. Parliament
Explanation: Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
921.

Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the courts of Records?

A. The High Court only
B. The Supreme Court only
C. The High Court and Supreme Court
D. The District Court
Answer» C. The High Court and Supreme Court
Explanation: A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are used with a high authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme Court the `court of record". Article 215 empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts of record.
922.

The function of Protem Speaker is to –

A. conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
B. officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected
C. swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D. check if the election certificates of members are in order
Answer» C. swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation: In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most member of parliament is called protem speaker.
923.

Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. A member appointed by the President.
B. A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
C. A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. A senior most member of the House
Answer» C. A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: In the absehce of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
924.

Indian Parliament includes :

A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. Only Lok Sabha
C. President and Lok Sabha
D. President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Answer» D. President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
925.

The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –

A. every five years
B. every six years
C. on the advice of the Prime Minister
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
926.

A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the-

A. President of India
B. Vice-President of India
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Attorney-General of India
Answer» C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: No bill will be regarded as passed by the Parliament unless both the Houses approve of it. In case of a difference between the two Houses over a non-money bill The President may call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sitting.
927.

Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?

A. State legislatures exclusively
B. Parliament alone
C. Parliament after State legislatures concur
D. Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Answer» D. Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Explanation: The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
928.

Parliament can Amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by -

A. a simple majority of its members
B. 2/3rd majority
C. 3/4th majority
D. support of 1/3 of its members
Answer» A. a simple majority of its members
Explanation: Parliament can amend the official language of India by the simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
929.

Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?

A. Vice-President of India
B. President of India
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister of India
Answer» A. Vice-President of India
Explanation: Vice-President of India is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
930.

Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of –

A. The Parliament
B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. The Comptroller and Auditor General
D. The President
Answer» A. The Parliament
Explanation: Items charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can be discussed but not voted upon in any House of the Parliament. No demand for grant under this head can be reduced or rejected.
931.

Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system?

A. The system is economical for representatives.
B. Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
C. It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
D. The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Answer» C. It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
Explanation: The single member constituency system allows a single representative in a legislative body rather than two or more. Because single-member districts are used in conjunction with plurality or majority voting rules, they are also said to foster strong and stable government.
932.

The Prime Minister of India is –

A. Elected by the Lok Sabha
B. Elected by the Parliament
C. Appointed by the President
D. Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Answer» C. Appointed by the President
Explanation: According to Article 75 of Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. He is the Head of Government, chief adviser to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
933.

Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are conducted by -

A. State Election Commissioner
B. Election Commission of India
C. State Government
D. Central Government
Answer» A. State Election Commissioner
Explanation: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
934.

Which one of the following is not the concern of local government?

A. Public health
B. Sanitation
C. Public utility service
D. Maintenance of public order
Answer» D. Maintenance of public order
Explanation: The local government of India are vested with a long list of functions delegated tothem by the state governments under the municipal legislation.
935.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the –

A. Union Government
B. State Government
C. Union and State Governments
D. Neither Union nor State Governments
Answer» C. Union and State Governments
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government- owned companies.
936.

The Finance Commission is mainly concerned with recommending to the President about –

A. distributing net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States
B. principles Governing the grantsin-aid to be given to States
C. both (1) and (2)
D. neither (1) and (2)
Answer» C. both (1) and (2)
Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted to make recommendations to the President about the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and also the allocation of the same amongst the States themselves. It is also under the ambit of the Finance Commission to define the financial relations between the Union and the States. They also deal with devolution of non-plan revenue resources.
937.

Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

A. Election Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Union Public Service Commission
D. Planning Commission
Answer» D. Planning Commission
Explanation: The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
938.

The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in –

A. any Sessions Court
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. any court of law within the territory of India
Answer» D. any court of law within the territory of India
Explanation: Powers and duties of the Attorney General of India is given in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution which mentions that in the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He/she also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
939.

Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?

A. To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighboring countries
B. To protect monuments of national importance
C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D. To know more and more about the history of India
Answer» C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation: The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (1) of the constitution of India. The 86th ConstitutionAmendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(1) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
940.

Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?

A. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
B. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
C. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
D. To practice family planning and to control population
Answer» D. To practice family planning and to control population
Explanation: To practise family planning and to control population, is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
941.

Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?

A. To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B. To visit the monuments of national importance
C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D. To know more and more about the religions of India
Answer» C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation: One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
942.

Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty?

A. To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the national flag and national anthem
B. To safeguard public property
C. To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
D. To render compulsory military service
Answer» D. To render compulsory military service
Explanation: To render compulsory military service is not a fundamental duty of the Indian Citizens.
943.

Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched?

A. Central Government : Union List
B. Local Governments : Residuary powers
C. State Governments : State List
D. Central and State Government : Concurrent List
Answer» B. Local Governments : Residuary powers
Explanation: The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state importance. The state governments have the authority to make laws on these subjects. These subjects include police, local governments, trade, commerce and agriculture. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental authority after certain powers have been delegated to other authorities.
944.

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

A. There is an independent judiciary in India.
B. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
C. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer» D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Explanation: Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states unlike the American federation. So, "D" is not the feature of Indian federalism.
945.

The Supreme Court of India acts as a Federal Court when it deals with –

A. Civil cases
B. Inter-State disputes
C. Appeals from lower courts
D. Election petitions
Answer» B. Inter-State disputes
Explanation: The Supreme Court. has exclusive original jurisdiction over any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depend. In this capacity, it serves as the federal court of India.
946.

Which one of the following Chief Justices of India had the opportunity to act as President of India?

A. Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
B. Justice P.B. Gajendra-gadkar
C. Justice M. Hidayatulla
D. Justice P. N. Bhagawati
Answer» C. Justice M. Hidayatulla
Explanation: Mohammad Hidayatullah was the eleventh Chief Justice of India, serving from February 25, 1968 to December 16, 1970, and the sixth Vice-President of India, serving from August 20, 1977 to August 20, 1982. He also served as the Acting President of India from July 20, 1969 to August 24, 1969.
947.

Which of the following is not a constitutional authority?

A. State Election Commission
B. State Finance Commission
C. Zila Panchayat
D. State Electoral Officer
Answer» D. State Electoral Officer
Explanation: State Electoral officer is not a constitutional authority.
948.

Which one among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?

A. University Grants Commission
B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Election Commission
D. Central Vigilance Commission
Answer» C. Election Commission
Explanation: University Grants commission, N.H.R.C. and C.V.C are non-constitutional bodies, whereas election commission is a constitutional body under Article 324.
949.

Which of the following is not an administrative function of a Village Panchayat?

A. Providing sanitation and drainage
B. Providing burial cremation grounds
C. Providing college education
D. Maintenance of roa
Answer» C. Providing college education
Explanation: Some of the functions of a Gram Panchayat are: collection of taxes like house etc; promotion of educational, health, agriculture and communication facilities; providing health and drinking water facilities whenever the village people need; produce authentic documents regarding birth, death or property details of village people; look after general welfare and immediate development of village e.g. road, fight, bazaar, community facilities, etc.
950.

Article 60 of the Indian Constitution refers to:

A. Election of the President of India
B. Oath of the President
C. Impeachment of the President
D. Vice President of India
Answer» B. Oath of the President
Explanation: Article 60 of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath of the President. It states that every President shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court available.
951.

Which among the following is not true about Pressure Groups?

A. Pressure Groups aim at capturing government.
B. Pressure Groups aim at influencing the policies of the government.
C. Pressure Groups articulates the interest of its group
D. Pressure Ginup is characterised by homogeneity of interests.
Answer» A. Pressure Groups aim at capturing government.
Explanation: Interest group or pressure group is an association of individuals or organizations, usually organized, on the basis of one or more shared concerns. It attempts to influence public policy in its favour. Unseating government is not their goal.
952.

Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian parliament separately, by special majority?

A. Ordinary Bill
B. Money Bill
C. Finance Bill
D. Constitution Amendment Bill
Answer» D. Constitution Amendment Bill
Explanation: The Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each house of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority.
953.

The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is -

A. One- twelveth of the total number of members of the House
B. One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House
C. One-tenth of the total number of members of the House
D. Two-third of the total number of members of the House
Answer» C. One-tenth of the total number of members of the House
Explanation: The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the Houses.
954.

Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament -

A. Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Discussion on Budget
B. Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Budget, Vote on Accounts
C. Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account,Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill
D. Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account
Answer» D. Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account
Explanation: The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account.
955.

The function of a Protem Speaker is to

A. conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence of the Speaker
B. officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is to be elected
C. swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D. scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates of members
Answer» C. swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation: Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of the Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the new Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker. Protem speaker is mainly an operating and temporary speaker.
956.

Resources transferred from the Government of India to States are termed `statutory' if they are made

A. in the form of loans
B. on the recommendations of the Planning Commission
C. on the recommendations of the Finance Commission
D. in the form of grants
Answer» C. on the recommendations of the Finance Commission
Explanation: in an explicit recognition of vertical and horizontal imbalances, the Indian Constitution embodies enabling and mandatory provisions to address them through the transfer of resources from the Centre to the States. Statutory grants-in-aid of the revenues of States
957.

The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is —

A. Nationalist Congress Party
B. Communist Party of India
C. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
D. Bahuj an Samaj Party
Answer» B. Communist Party of India
Explanation: The CPI came into existence in 1964 as a result of the division of communist party of India. It is against capitalism and believes in socialism, democracy and secularism.
958.

What provision in the Constitution enabled the Central Government to impose the service tax and to expand its span?

A. List I, Schedule VII
B. List III, Schedule VII
C. Residuary Powers under Article 248
D. Emergency Powers
Answer» C. Residuary Powers under Article 248
Explanation: Under the Residuary powers of legislation enumerated in Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists.
959.

Which of the following sets of Articles deals with `Emergency Provisions'?

A. Articles 32 and 226
B. Articles 350 and 351
C. Articles 352, 356 and 360
D. Articles 335, 336 and 337
Answer» C. Articles 352, 356 and 360
Explanation: The Emergency Provisions are mentioned from Article 352 to Article 360 of theIndian Constitution. Article 352: Proclamation of Emergency - due to external intrusion or war; Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States; and Article 360: Provisions as to financial emergency.
960.

Which among the following legislation gives constitutional status to three-tier Panchayati Raj system?

A. 72nd constitutional amendment, 1992
B. 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
C. 74th constitutional amendment, 1993
D. 75th constitutional amendment, 1994
Answer» B. 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
Explanation: The philosophy of Panchayat Raj is deeply steeped in tradition and culture of rural India and is by no means a new concept. Panchayati Raj provided a system of self- governance at the village level, however, it did not have a constitutional status. April 24, 1993 is a red-letter day in the history of Panchayati. Raj in India as on this day the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 came into force to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
961.

What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

A. Five years
B. During the ‘pleasure’ of the President
C. Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
D. Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
Answer» C. Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
Explanation: The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is six years or till the age of 65 year whichever is earlier.
962.

Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each State into territorial constituencies?

A. The President of India
B. The Parliament of India
C. The Chief Election Commissioner of India
D. The Lok Sabha alone
Answer» B. The Parliament of India
Explanation: According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into territorial constituencies.
963.

Division of powers is the principle of –

A. Unitary form of Government
B. Federal form of Government
C. Socialist form of Government
D. Republican form of Government
Answer» B. Federal form of Government
Explanation: The separation of powers, often imprecisely used interchangeably with the trias politica principle, is a model for the governance of a state. The normal division of branches is into a legislature, an executive, and a judiciary. Division of powers is the often overlooked principle of dividing governmental power among the federal, state, and local governments.
964.

Who constitutes the Finance Commission after every five years?

A. The Council of Ministers
B. The Parliament
C. The President
D. The Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer» C. The President
Explanation: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Finance Commission. The Finance Commission of India came into existence in 1951. It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India. It was formed to define the financial relations between the centre and the state.
965.

Members of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed by the–

A. Parliament after a resolution adopted with 2/3rds majority
B. President on a unani-mous recommendation from the Union Council of Ministers
C. President on the basis of an inquiry and report by the Supreme Court
D. President on recommendation from Central Administrative Tribunal
Answer» C. President on the basis of an inquiry and report by the Supreme Court
Explanation: Every member holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier. He can submit his resignation at any time to the President of India. He may be removed from his office by the President of India on the ground of misbehavior (only if an inquiry of such misbehavior is made and upheld by Supreme Court) or if he is adjudged insolvent, or engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office, or in the opinion of the President unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
966.

The Legislative Council in a State in India may be created or abolished by the-

A. President on the recommendation of the Governor
B. Parliament
C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect.
D. Governor on a recommendation by the State Cabinet
Answer» C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect.
Explanation: The Vidhan Parishad (or Legislative Council) is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral legislature. As of 2011, six (out of twenty-eight) states have a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh. The existence of a Legislative Council has proven politically controversial. A number of states that have had their Council abolished have subsequently requested its reestablishment; conversely, proposals for the reestablishment of the Council for a state have also met with opposition. Proposals for abolition or reestablishment of a state’s Legislative Council require confirmation by the Parliament of India.
967.

Which of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

A. A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament.
B. The Speaker of sLok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
C. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days.
D. The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
Answer» A. A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament.
Explanation: As per Article 110, a Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker thereon is final. The Speaker is under no obligation to consult any one in coming to a decision or in giving his certificate that a Bill is a Money Bill.
968.

The Estimate Committee consists of –

A. 30 members from Lok Sabha
B. 30 members from Habra Sabha
C. 30 members from both Sabha
D. 22 members from Lok Sabha
Answer» A. 30 members from Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members.
969.

If the Speaker of Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to –

A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
C. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. President of India
Answer» C. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker can be removed from office only on a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.
970.

On the subjects mentioned in the concurrent list, laws may be enacted by the –

A. States and the Union
B. Union alone
C. States alone
D. States and the Union territories
Answer» A. States and the Union
Explanation: The Concurrent List contains subjects defined and enlisted under the List - HI of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, which form the joint domain of both the State Governments and the Union territories of India as well as the Central Government of India under these subjects.
971.

Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution?

A. Estate Duty
B. Sales Tax
C. Taxes on Railway Fares and Freights
D. Corporation Tax
Answer» D. Corporation Tax
Explanation: The authority to levy a tax is derived from the Constitution of India which allocates the power to levy various taxes between the Centre and the State. Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, distributes legislative powers including taxation, between the Parliament of India and the State Legislature. Taxes of Central government under constitutionally established scheme of taxation are: taxes on income other than agricultural income; duties of customs including export duties; corporation tax; taxes on capital value of assets, exclusive of agricultural land, of individuals and companies, taxes on capital of companies; estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land, etc.
972.

The Presidential Government operates on the principle of –

A. Division of Powers between Centre and Slates
B. Centralisation of Powers
C. Balance of Powers
D. Separation of Powers
Answer» D. Separation of Powers
Explanation: In democratic systems of governance based on the trias politjca, a fundamental parallel and a fundamental difference exists between presidential systems and constitutional monarchic parliamentary system of government. The parallel is that the three branches of government (legislative,executive, judicial) exist largely independent of each other, with their own prerogatives, domains of activity, and exercises of control over each other. In presidential systems, the incumbent of the Headof-state is elected to office and, after transfer of power, appoints his administration (like in the United States, with unitary executive) or a government, headed by a prime minister
973.

Most important safeguard of liberty is –

A. bold and impartial judiciary
B. well-knit party system
C. decentralisation of power
D. declaration of rights
Answer» A. bold and impartial judiciary
Explanation: Liberty is the quality individuals have to control their own actions. Sociologists define the active exercise of freedom and rights as essential to liberty. There must be an independent and impartial judiciary for the protection and preservation and individual liberty. The judiciary must be independent of executive and legislative control.
974.

Which one of the following fundamental rights is available to Indian citizens only?

A. Equality before law
B. Protection of life and personal liberty against any action without authority of law
C. Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
D. (4) fltedom of religion
Answer» C. Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
Explanation: Some fundamental rights apply for persons of any nationality whereas others are available only to the citizens of India. The right to life and personal liberty is available to all people and so is the right to freedom of religion. On the other hand, freedoms of speech and expression and freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country are reserved to citizens alone, including non-resident Indian citizens. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and prevents the State from discriminating against anyone in matters ofemployment on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.
975.

Which of the following Act introduced separate electorates (communal representation) for Muslims?

A. 1892 Act
B. Act of 1909
C. Reforms of 1919
D. Government of India Act of 1935
Answer» B. Act of 1909
Explanation: To divide the Hindu-Muslim unity, the Indian Councils Act 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims. It stipulated that in councils and in the imperial legislature, for the number of reserved seats to be in excess of their relative population (25 percent of the Indian population), and that only Muslims should vote for candidates for the Muslim seats (`separate electorates').
976.

How does the Constitution of India describe India as?

A. A federation of States and Union Territories
B. A Union of States
C. Bharatvarsh
D. A federated nation
Answer» B. A Union of States
Explanation: With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country's fundamental governing document. The Constitution declares India to be sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens of justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavours to promote fraternity among them.
977.

Preventive detention means -

A. detention for interrogation
B. detention after interrogation
C. detention without interrogation
D. detention for cognisable offence
Answer» C. detention without interrogation
Explanation: Preventive detention is an imprisonment that is putatively justified for non- punitive purposes. In contrast to this, underpreventive detention the government can imprison a person for some time without a criminal charge. It means that if the government feels that a person being at liberty can be a threat to the law and order or the unity and integrity of the nation, it can detain or arrest that person to prevent him from doing this possible harm.
978.

Draft of Indian Constitution was prepared by—

A. Sir B. N. Rao, "Advisor to the Constituent Assembly
B. Sir A lladi Krislinaswamy Iyer Chairman Constitution Draft Committee
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Union Law Minister
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru, Prime Minister
Answer» A. Sir B. N. Rao, "Advisor to the Constituent Assembly
Explanation: 0
979.

not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy thetest of democracy'.
The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to -

A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Dr B R Ambedkar
C. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
D. Acharya J B Kriplani
Answer» B. Dr B R Ambedkar
Explanation: On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advisor. These members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopala swami Ayengar, B L Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft Constitution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947. This is Ambedkar's second argument rested on the legitimacy of the democratic system.
980.

The Lok -Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its normal five year term by -

A. The Prime Minister
B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
D. None of the above
Answer» C. The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
Explanation: The Lok Sabha may be dissolved before the expiry of its term by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. During national emergency, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended by the President beyond five years for one year at a time. The new Lok Sabha must be elected within six months after the national emergency is lifted.
981.

The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the Constitution by -

A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Vice-President of India
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. The two Houses of Parliament
Answer» D. The two Houses of Parliament
Explanation: Impeachment of President by the two houses of Parliament under article 61 mentioned.
982.

Which Fundamental Right accoording to Dr. Ambedkar is like the heart of the Constitution?

A. Right of Constitutional remedies
B. Right to religion
C. Right to equality
D. Right to freedom
Answer» A. Right of Constitutional remedies
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee, called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution.
983.

The success of democracy depends upon the –

A. Right to criticise
B. Right to association
C. Right to personal liberty
D. Right to property
Answer» C. Right to personal liberty
Explanation: The Constitution guarantees that one has a right to liberty and freedom, except in accordance with the law. This means that, in general, one is entitled to own personal freedom but legislation may provide for arrest and detention in certain circumstances. Right to personal liberty is considered one of the foundations of democracy.
984.

Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India?

A. The Attorney General of India
B. The Solicitor General of India
C. Special officer for linguistic minorities
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Answer» B. The Solicitor General of India
Explanation: Whereas attorney general for India is appointed by the President under Article 76 (1) of the constitution, the Solicitor general of India is appointed to assit the attorney general along with four additional solicitors general by the Appointments Committee of the cabinet.
985.

As per the constitutional provisions. The President of India enjoys the power of absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. However none of these can be applied on case of giving assent to —

A. Money Bill
B. Bill related to declaration of emergency in a part or whole of the country
C. Bill related to suspension of any of the fundamental rights
D. All of the above
Answer» A. Money Bill
Explanation: As per the Constitutional provisions, The president of India cannot use the power of absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto in case of giving assent to the Money Bill.
986.

Who votes in the election of Vice President of India?

A. All the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. All the Members of Parliament and members of legislative assemblies
C. Elected MPs and MLAs
D. All of the MPs, MLAs and MLCs
Answer» D. All of the MPs, MLAs and MLCs
Explanation: All the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha votes in the election of Vice— President of India.
987.

Political liberty implies –

A. people's control over the government
B. free political activities of the people
C. cooperation between politics and democracy
D. voters can make and unmake their government
Answer» B. free political activities of the people
Explanation: Political liberty is the state or condition of those who are invested with the right effectually to share in framing and conducting the government under which they are politically organized. In other words, it means freedom in the exercise of political activities.
988.

Who has the power to prorogue the Lok Sabha?

A. The Speaker
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
D. The President
Answer» D. The President
Explanation: As per Article 85 of Indian constitution, the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its lasting sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. The same article adds that he may from time to time –
• prorogue the Houses or either House;
• dissolve the House of the People
989.

Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of -

A. decentralisation
B. deconcentration
C. decmocratic centralization
D. democratic decentralization
Answer» D. democratic decentralization
Explanation: The principle of democratic decentralisation is very important and forms the basis of Panchayati Raj.
990.

Which of the following committees is not concerned with Panchayati Raj?

A. Santhanam Committee
B. Ashok Mehta. Committee
C. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
D. V.K.R.V. Rao Committee
Answer» A. Santhanam Committee
Explanation: The santhanam Committee Report 1964 defines corruption as a complex problem having roots and ramifications in society as a whole.
991.

Who finally approves the draft Five- Year-Plan?

A. Planning Commission
B. President
C. National Development Council
D. Parliament and State Legislatures
Answer» C. National Development Council
Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister. It was set up on August 6, 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan, to promote common economic policies In all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. The Council comprises the Prime Minister,. the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the union territories and the members of the Commissions.
992.

Only one of the following can be the ex- officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the –

A. Minister for Planning and Development
B. Home Minister
C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister
Answer» C. Prime Minister
Explanation: The composition of the Commission has undergone a lot of change since its inception. With the Prime Minister as the ex- officio Chairman, the commission has a nominated Deputy Chairman, who is given the rank of a full Cabinet Minister. Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is presently the Depuly Chairman of the Commission.
993.

Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards international peace and security?

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of state policy
C. Emergency provisions
D. Preamble to the constitution
Answer» B. Directive Principles of state policy
Explanation: Directive principles of state policy states the responsibility of the state towards international peace and security.
994.

The purpose of the inclusion of directive principles of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?

A. Political Democracy
B. Social Democracy
C. Canadian Democracy
D. Social and Economic Democracy
Answer» D. Social and Economic Democracy
Explanation: Social and economic democracy is the foundation on which political democracy would e a way of life in the Indian polity.
995.

Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

A. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code.
B. The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections.
C. The State shall endeavour to promote adult education to eliminate illiteracy.
D. The State shall endeavour to protect every monument, place or object of artistic or historic interest.
Answer» C. The State shall endeavour to promote adult education to eliminate illiteracy.
Explanation: 0
996.

Sarkaria Commission was set up to review -

A. the relation between the President and the Prime Minister
B. the relation between the legislative and the executive
C. the relations between the executive and the judiciary
D. the relations between the Union and the State.
Answer» D. the relations between the Union and the State.
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up to review the relations between the Union and the States. Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India.
997.

To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the President be referred?

A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India
D. None of these
Answer» C. Supreme Court of India
Explanation: Article 71 of the Constitution of India, 1950, provides that all doubts and disputes relating to election of a President or Vice- President are required to be enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court.
998.

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its -

A. Advisory jurisdiction
B. Original jurisdiction
C. Appellate jurisdiction
D. Jurisprudence
Answer» B. Original jurisdiction
Explanation: According to Article 13 under Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute:
between the Government of India and one or more States; or
between the Government of India and any State of States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or
between two or more States. If and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
999.

What is the meaning of “Public Interest Litigation”?

A. Anything of public interest
B. A case brought by victim to court, involving public interest
C. Acase brought by anyone to court involving public interest
D. A directive issued by Supreme Court involving public interest
Answer» C. Acase brought by anyone to court involving public interest
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation, or PIL, is defined as the use of litigation, or legal action, which seeks to advance the cause of minority or disadvantaged groups or individuals, or which raises issues of broad public concern. It is litigation introduced in a court of law, not by the aggrieved party but by the court itself or by any other private party. It is not necessary, for the exercise of the court's jurisdiction, that the person who is the victim of the violation of his or her right should personally approach the court.
1000.

The Kamraj Plan proposed -

A. priority to agriculture over industry
B. inducting senior leaders to party work
C. election to all party officers
D. an overhaul of the congress working committee
Answer» B. inducting senior leaders to party work
Explanation: The Kamraj Plan proposed inducting senior leaders to party work. He came up with a plan which was called the "Kamaraj Plan". On 2 October 1963, he resigned from the post of Tamil Nadu Chief Minister. He proposed that all senior Congress leaders should resign from their posts and devote all their energy to the re-vitalization of the party.
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