1750+ Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) Solved MCQs

1001.

The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that -

A. It is the Union Legislature in India
B. It also comprises of the President
C. It is bicameral in nature
D. The Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved
Answer» C. It is bicameral in nature
Explanation: Bicameralism has been one of the most important features of India's parliamentary democracy. Ever since the coming into force of the Constitution, both the Chambers of Indian Parliament have been complementing each other in more ways than one.
1002.

The members of the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories of India are :

A. Nominated by the President
B. Elected by the members of local bodies of the Union Territories.
C. Chosen by direct election
D. Chosen by direct election in Puducherry whereas nominated by the president in other territories.
Answer» C. Chosen by direct election
Explanation: All the members of the Lok Sabha have chosen by direct election except two members may be nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian Community.
1003.

The first reading of the Bill in a House of Parliament refers to :

A. The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the House
B. The general discussion on the Bill as whole where only the principle underlying the Bill is discussed and not the details of the bill.
C. The general discussion on the Bill where the bill is discussed in details.
D. The state when the Bill is referred either to select committee of the House or to the joint committee of the two houses.
Answer» A. The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the House
Explanation: The first reading of the bill in a house of parliament refers to motion for leave to introduce the bill in the House. If a motion for leave to introduce a Bill is opposed, the Speaker, after permitting, if he thinks fit, brief statements from the member who opposes the motion and the member who moved the motion, may, without further debate, put the question: provided that where a motion is opposed on the ground that the Bill initiates legislation outside the legislative competence of the House, the Speaker may permit a full discussion thereon.
1004.

The term of the Lok Sabha -

A. Can't be extended under any circumstances
B. Can be extended by six months at a time
C. Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
D. Can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Answer» C. Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Explanation: The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by the Parliament beyond the five-year term during the period of time of emergencyproclaimed under Art 352. But his extension is for a period of not more than one year at a time (no limit on the number of times in the Constitution).
1005.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
B. There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya Sabha.
C. There is no constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as a Union Minister
D. A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Answer» C. There is no constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as a Union Minister
Explanation: There is no bar on appointment of a person from outside the legislature as Minister, but he cannot continue as Minister for more than 6 months unless he secures a seat in either house of the parliament (by election or nomination) in the meantime [Article 75(5)].
1006.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
B. In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the rules.
C. A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be taken up within ten days of leave being granted.
D. Rayya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence.
Answer» A. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
Explanation: ‘No-confidence motion’ need not state the reason for it being adopted in the Lok Sabha.
1007.

Name the body which was established to provide safety and security of SCs' and STs' social, economic, cultural and educational concerns after an amendment in the Indian constitution?

A. Law Commission of India
B. National Commission for SC and ST
C. Special officer for Linguistic Minorities
D. Central Vigilance Commission
Answer» B. National Commission for SC and ST
Explanation: The 65th constitutional amendment was enacted on 12 March 1990 for the formation of National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (NCSCST) and conferring statutory powers on it. Amendments were made in Article 338 for the constitution of the body. However, 89th amendment of the constitution in 2003 bifurcated the NCSCST into two bodies for SCs and STs.
1008.

India has been described under Article- 1 of the Constitution as a –

A. Federation
B. Federation, with a strong unitary bias
C. Confederation
D. Union of States
Answer» D. Union of States
Explanation: Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States; the sates and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule; and the territory of India shall comprise the territories of the States, the Union territories specified in the First Schedule; and such other territories as may be acquired.
1009.

Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?

A. Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political parties involve larger number of people
B. Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do
C. Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political parties do
D. Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues
Answer» B. Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do
Explanation: Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do. Political parties exist to gain power over governmentalpolicy by winning elections for political office. Interest groups do not necessarily have their members run for office and they vote in a nonpartisan way, supporting candidates who promote their point of view.
1010.

What does Section 124A of Indian Penal Code deal with?

A. Atrocity against women
B. Sedition
C. Crime for demanding dowry
D. (4) Atrocity against SC/ST
Answer» B. Sedition
Explanation: Sedition in India is defined by section 124 A of the Indian Penal Code. Section 124A was introduced by the British colonial government in 1870 when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with radical Wahhabi movement of the 19th century. Sedition can be punished with imprisonment for life.
1011.

What is the implication of the Central Government granting "Special Status" to a State?

A. Substantially large percentage of the central assistance will be as grantsin-aid
B. The extent of loan as a percentage of total assistance will be low
C. Current account budgetary deficit will be bridged by the Central Government
D. Both (1) and (2) above
Answer» D. Both (1) and (2) above
Explanation: The Special category states category is meant for a specific category such as a hilly terrain and geographically difficult area where supply of public services is difficult. The National Development Council and not the Central government decides on the special category classification for states. At present, there are 11 States that have been granted special status, including Jammu and Kashmir and the seven North-Eastern States. Some of these States get some tax concessions for setting up industry. The method of budgetary allocation is also different for special category States and non- special ones. Under the existing formulae, one- third of the gross budgetary support goes to special States and the remaining to other States. In addition, special status States get 90 per cent of resources under the grant and remaining 10 per cent as loan, while non-special ones get 70per cent of the resources as loan and remaining 30 per cent as grant.
1012.

Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A. Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts
B. Directive Principles have a political sanction
C. Directive Principles are declaration of objective for State Legislation
D. Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians
Answer» D. Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for creating a social order characterized by social, economic, and political justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as enunciated in the constitution's preamble. It does not promise equal income and free healthcare for all Indians.
1013.

The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to -

A. lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
B. implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralized state
C. check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
D. promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Answer» A. lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
Explanation: The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is to lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels. The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian constitution. The Directive Principles may be said to contain the philosophy of the constitution. The Directive principles are broad directives given to the state in accordance with which the legislative and executive powers of the state are to be exercised.
1014.

Which of the follwoing is an extra- constitutional and non-statutory body?

A. Finance Commission
B. Planning Commission
C. Union Public Service Commission
D. Election Commission
Answer» B. Planning Commission
Explanation: The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution ot statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
1015.

The Finance Commission –

A. draws up Five Year Plans
B. formulates Monetary Policy
C. recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
D. adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Answer» D. adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Explanation: Functions of the Finance Commission can ne explicitly stated as : (1) Distribution of net procee of taxes between Centre and the States, to be dividec as per their respective contributions to the taxes, (2) Determine factors governing Grants-in Aid to the states and the magnitude of the same; and (3) Wor with the State Finance Commissions and suggest measures to at the Consolidated Fund of the States so as to provide additional resources to Panchayats and Municipalities in the state.
1016.

Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?

A. Attorney-General of India
B. Solicitor-General of India
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Chief Election Commissioner
Answer» A. Attorney-General of India
Explanation: The Attorney General of India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. The Attorney General is responsible for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
1017.

Which one of the following Directive principles is nearer to Gandhi's philosophy?

A. Equal pay for equal work
B. Separation of executive from judiciary
C. Strengthening of Gram Panchayats
D. Equal justice and free legal aid
Answer» C. Strengthening of Gram Panchayats
Explanation: Gandhi's philosophy was about strengthening of Gram Panchayats.
1018.

The President of India is –

A. the Head of State
B. the Head of Government
C. the Head of State and Government
D. the Head of Parliament
Answer» A. the Head of State
Explanation: The President of the Republic of India is the Head of State of India and the Commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces, Besides, according to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the President is part of parliament along with Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha).
1019.

Parliamentary or Presidential Government can be distinguished mainly by

A. its federal nature
B. the rigidity of the Constitution
C. the employer-employee relations
D. the legislative-executive relations
Answer» D. the legislative-executive relations
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from, and is held accountable to, the legislature; the executive and legislative branches are thus interconnected. In a presidential system, the head of state often is also the head of government, and the executive branch does not derive its democratic legitimacy from the legislature.
1020.

Which one of the following committees is NOT a Standing Committee of the Parliament?

A. Public Accounts Committee
B. Estimates Committee
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Consultative Committee to the Ministry of Finance
Answer» D. Consultative Committee to the Ministry of Finance
Explanation: Each House of Parliament has standing committees which are permanent and regular committees and are constituted from time to time in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Parliament. The Financial Committees, DRSCs and some other Committees come under the category of Standing Committees.
1021.

The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 extends to –

A. whole of India
B. whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
C. Union Territories
D. only the State of Jammu and Kashmir
Answer» A. whole of India
Explanation: The protection of civil rights act 1955 extends to Whole of India. The Act extends to the whole of India and provides punishment for the practice of untouchability.
1022.

India is a federal state because its Constitution provides for -

A. dual citizenship.
B. division of powers between the Union and the States.
C. a written constitution.
D. election of members of Parliament by the people.
Answer» B. division of powers between the Union and the States.
Explanation: India has borrowed the concept of federalism from Canada. In this system there is clear division of powers between the union and States.
1023.

Under which of the following situations can Rajya Sabha be dissolved?

A. When financial emergency is declared in the country.
B. When emergency is declared due to failure of Constitutional machinery.
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. None of these
Answer» D. None of these
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is also known as "Council of States" or the upper house. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retires every second year, and is replaced by newly elected members
1024.

One of the following is a part of executive. Find out –

A. Member of Legislative Council
B. Member of Rajya Sabha
C. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
D. Sub-Inspector of Police
Answer» D. Sub-Inspector of Police
Explanation: The executive arm/tier is the part of government that has sole authority and responsibility for the daily administration of the state. The executive branch executes the law. By this yardstick, the Sub-Inspector of Police is part of the executive as he has to deal with law and order on a day-to-day basis.
1025.

Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India –

A. Finance Minister
B. President
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister
Answer» C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha conducts the business in the house. He/she decides whether a bill is a money bill or a non money bill.
1026.

Who is the competent to dissolve the Parliament?

A. The President
B. The Cabinet with the concurrence of the Leader of the Opposition
C. By resolution in both Houses of Parliament
D. None of these
Answer» A. The President
Explanation: The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha. When the term, dissolution of Parliament is used, it only means the Lok Sabha, the House of the People, the Lower House of Parliament. Parliament comprises the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha, the Council of States, the Upper House. The first and third have fixed terms of five and six years respectively, the Lok Sabha has a term of five years but can be dissolved earlier.
1027.

The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the Chief of its Secretariat and is :

A. elected by the Lok Sabha
B. elected by both Houses of Parliament
C. appointed by the Speaker
D. appointed by the President
Answer» C. appointed by the Speaker
Explanation: The Secretary General is the administrative head of the Secretariat of the Lok Sabha. The post of Secretary General is of the rank of the Cabinet Secretary in the Government of India, who is the senior most civil servant to the Indian Government. The incumbent to the post is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha in consultation with the Prime Minister of India and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
1028.

The "Residuary Powers" (not mentioned in the Union, State or Concurrent lists of the Constitution) are vested in –

A. President of India
B. Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
C. State Legislature
D. Lok Sabha
Answer» B. Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
Explanation: Three subject lists, the Union list, the State list, and the Concurrent list, define the legislative powers of each level of government. All residuary powers are vested with theParliament of India. In the U.S.A, and Australia the residuary powers are given to the States. In Canada they vest in the Union.
1029.

What is the composition of the electoral college for the election of Vice-President of India?

A. Elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
B. Elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C. Members of both Houses of Parliament
D. Members of Rajya Sabha only
Answer» B. Elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of the Parliament. The election of the Vice President is slightly different from the election of the President the members of state legislatures are not part of the Electoral College for Vice Presidential election. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot.
1030.

Who of the following Chief Justice of India acted as the President of India also?

A. Justice M. Hidayatullah
B. Justice P.N. Bhagwati
C. Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
D. Justice B.K. Mukherjee
Answer» A. Justice M. Hidayatullah
Explanation: The CJI, Justice Hidayatullah then became the acting President of India. When the newly elected President took office a month later, Justice Hidayatullah reverted as the Chief Justice of India. P.M. Bhagwati - 17th Chief Justice of India (1985-1986) Mehar Chand Mahajan - 1st Prime minister of Jammu & Kashmir 3"' Chief Justice of India (1954) B.K. Mukharjee - 4th Chief Justice of India (1954-1956)
1031.

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Languages : Eighth Schedule
B. The forms of oaths or affirmations: Second Schedule
C. Allocation of seats in the Council of States - Fourth Schedule
D. Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection - Tenth Schedule
Answer» B. The forms of oaths or affirmations: Second Schedule
Explanation: Forms of Oaths and Affirmations are the subject of Third Schedule. Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges, Judges of High Court and Supreme Court, Comptroller and Auditor General are the subject of Second Schedule.
1032.

Which of the following would be called a "Secular" state?

A. The state which follows a particular religion
B. The state which is anti-religion
C. The state which does not discriminate between religions
D. The state which accepts all religions as religions of state
Answer» C. The state which does not discriminate between religions
Explanation: A secular state purports to be officially neutral in matters of religion, supporting neither religion nor irreligion. It also claims to treat all its citizens equally regardless of religion, and claims to avoid preferential treatment for a citizen from a particular religion/ non-religion over other religions/nonreligion.
1033.

India is a secular state because in our country –

A. state has no religion
B. religion has been abolished
C. state patronises a particular religion
D. (4) None of these
Answer» A. state has no religion
Explanation: India is a secular country as per the declaration in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. It prohibits discrimination against members of a particular religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Every person has the right to preach, practice and propagate any religion they choose. Besides, there is no state religion.
1034.

Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?

A. Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
B. 'West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
C. Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
D. State of Bombay vs. Balsara
Answer» A. Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
Explanation: In the famous case of Golaknath V. State Of Punjab, -in 1967 the Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. The issues involved in this case were: whether Amendment is a "law" under the meaning of Article 13(2) and whether Fundamental Rights can be amended or not.
1035.

The writ of 'Habeas Corpus' is issued in the event of –

A. Los of property
B. Refund of excess taxes
C. Wrongful police detention
D. Violation of the freedom of speech
Answer» C. Wrongful police detention
Explanation: Habeas corpus means "you must present the person in court". It is a writ (legal action) which requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. This ensures that a prisoner can be released from unlawful detention, in other words, detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence.
1036.

Political equality is found in –

A. the absence of privileges
B. universal adult suffrage
C. equal distribution of wealth
D. the rationality of the individual
Answer» B. universal adult suffrage
Explanation: Political Equality means granting equal citizenship to all members of the state, and also, to ensure conditions that allow the citizens to participate in the affairs of the state. Political equality brings along with it certain rights such as right to vote, right to contest elections, right to criticize the government etc. Political equality is based on the idea of Universal Adult Franchise.
1037.

Fundamental Rights are not given to –

A. Bankrupt persons
B. Aliens
C. Persons suffering from incurable diseases
D. 4) Political sufferers
Answer» B. Aliens
Explanation: The Fundamental Rights, embodied in Part III of the Constitution, guarantee civil rights to all Indians, and prevent the State from encroaching on individual liberty while simultaneously placing upon it an obligation to protect the citizens' rights from encroachment by society.
1038.

What is the fascist view of state?

A. State enhances the ideal of individualism
B. Nation state is unqucstion ably sovereign.
C. State is the instrument of exploitation in the hands of few.
D. State is under the control of a king
Answer» B. Nation state is unqucstion ably sovereign.
Explanation: Fascism aggressively asserts the external sovereignty of the nation-state in the international system, pursuing a geopolitical strategy designed to secure territorial gains and promote autarky (Kallis, 2000). It espouses absolute sovereignty, moral and legal, of the national state. The motto of the fascist state is: "Everything of the state; nothing against the state; nothing outside the state." (Source: Political Theory: Ideas and Concepts by S. Ramaswamy)
1039.

The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a -

A. Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha
B. Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister
C. Minister in the Lok Sabha
D. Minister in any House of the Parliament.
Answer» D. Minister in any House of the Parliament.
Explanation: Government bill can introduced by minister in any house of the parliament.
1040.

When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a -

A. simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
B. two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
C. simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
D. two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
Answer» A. simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
Explanation: Joint session is presided over by the speaker of Lok Sabha or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker. In a joint sitting a bill is passed simply by the majority of the both the members of the house present and voting.
1041.

Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the –

A. President of India
B. Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister of India
Answer» C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
1042.

Article-32 of the Indian constitution relates to –

A. Right against exploitation
B. Right to religion
C. Right to constitutional remedies
D. Right to equality
Answer» C. Right to constitutional remedies
Explanation: The sole object of the Article 32 of the Constitution of India is the enforcement of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights.
1043.

Which one of the following is related to Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

A. Speaker of the Parliament seeking opinion from the Supreme Court
B. Election Commission seeking opinion from the Supreme Court
C. States seeking opinion from the Supereme Court
D. President of on India seeks opinion law or facts
Answer» D. President of on India seeks opinion law or facts
Explanation: The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court "advises" the President by answering the query put before it. The advice given by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President, nor is it "law declared by the Supreme Court", hence not binding on subordinate courts.
1044.

Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?

A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court of India
C. President
D. Attorney General of India
Answer» B. Supreme Court of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the highest court in India and has ultimate judicial authority to interpret the Constitution and decide questions of national law (including local bylaws). It is also vested with the power of judicial review to ensure the application of the rule of law. Besides, as provided in the Keshavananda Bharti case (1973), though parliament has the power to alter or amend any part of the constitution, the Supreme Court has the final authority whether amendment violates or infringes upon the basic structure of the constitution.
1045.

The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by –

A. The President
B. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
C. Governor of the State
D. Chief Minister of the State
Answer» A. The President
Explanation: Judges in a High Court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the state.
1046.

With reference to the Constitution of India, which on the following pairs is not matched?

A. Forests : Concurrent List
B. Stock Exchanges : Concurrent list
C. Post office saving Bank : Union List
D. Public Health : State list
Answer» B. Stock Exchanges : Concurrent list
Explanation: Stock exchange and future markets are listed in the Union list, but not in the concurrent list.
1047.

Which one of the following was established with a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?

A. Union Public Service Commission
B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Election Commission
D. Central Vigilance Commission
Answer» C. Election Commission
Explanation: The Election Commission was established by the Constitution of India under Article 324 directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country. It entrusts the Election Commission with power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India.
1048.

Concept of welfare state in Indian Constitution is included in -

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Citizenship
D. Provision of Election Commission
Answer» B. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: The directive principles of state policy are the guidelines given to the central and state government of India. These provisions are contained in part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India and these are not enforceable by any court.
1049.

The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to –

A. The President
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Answer» A. The President
Explanation: The UPSC annually submits a report of its work to the President of India. Further it is sent to each house of Parliament for discussion.
1050.

When were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?

A. At the time of framing of Constitution
B. On 26th January, 1950
C. In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
D. In the 41st Constitutional Amendment
Answer» C. In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These fundamental Duties were introduced in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976- Article 51A, upon the recommendations of the Swam Singh Committee.
1051.

For which peroid the Finance Commission is formed?

A. 2 years
B. Every year
C. 5 years
D. According to the wishes of President
Answer» C. 5 years
Explanation: The Finance Commission of India is established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India to define the financial relations between the centre and the state. The Finance Commission Act of 1951states the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission, As per the Constitution, the commission is appointed every five years and consists of a chairman and four other members. Note: Finance Commission is established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India. It was formed to define the financial relations between the Centre and the state. Till date, Fourteen Finance Commissions have submilled their reports. 14th Finance Commission headed by Prof. Y V Reddy.
1052.

The President can advance money to meet unforeseen expenses from the–

A. Consolidated Fund of India
B. Grants of the Central Government
C. Aid from the Union Government
D. Contingency Fund
Answer» D. Contingency Fund
Explanation: The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of the President. He can advance money of this fund to meet unforeseen expenses and recover the same after due authorization by the parliament. The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president. Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action.
1053.

If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to :

A. Prime Minister of India
B. Vice-President of India
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Chief Justice of India
Answer» B. Vice-President of India
Explanation: The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice President. Further, he can also be removed from the office before completion of his term by the process of impeachment.
1054.

Impeachment Proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be intiated in :

A. Either House of Parliament
B. The Lok Sabha
C. The Rajya Sabha
D. The Supreme Court
Answer» A. Either House of Parliament
Explanation: According to Article 61 of Indian Constitution, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. It adds that no such charge shall be preferred unless: the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days' notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
1055.

The Ministry sometimes referred to as "Green Ministry" in India is Ministry of-

A. Agriculture and Rural Development
B. Environment and Forests
C. Surface and Transport
D. Urban Development and Landscaping
Answer» B. Environment and Forests
Explanation: The Union Ministry of Environment and Forests is also known as 'Green Ministry' as it is responsible for planning, promoting, coordinating, and overseeing the implementation of environmental and forestry programmes in the country. The main activities undertaken by the ministry include conservation and survey of the flora of India and fauna of India, forests and other wilderness areas; prevention and control of pollution; afforestation, and land degradation mitigation. It is responsible for the administration of the national parks of India.
1056.

In Presidential Government, the President is –

A. independent of the Legislature
B. dependent on the Legislature
C. dependent on the Judiciary
D. bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers
Answer» A. independent of the Legislature
Explanation: Presidential Government is a system of government in which the president is constitutionally independent of the legislature. In it, the head of government is also head of state and leads an executive branch that is separate from the legislative branch. The United States, for instance, has a presidential system.
1057.

Which one of the following is not an elected member of the House?

A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer» C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Explanation: Vice president is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha. He is elected as Vice president not the member of Rajya Sabha.
1058.

A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by -

A. President of India
B. The Prime minister
C. The President after an address by the Parliament
D. The speaker
Answer» C. The President after an address by the Parliament
Explanation: By the President after a resolution of Parliament passed by a majority of its members and two third majority of the members present and voting in each house.
1059.

The State Commission submits its annual report to the -

A. Governor
B. State Government
C. Chief Justice of the High Court
D. Chief Justice of India
Answer» A. Governor
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of the Public Service Commission at the Provincial level known as the State Public Service Commission and the constitution of India gave ita constitutional status as autonomous bodies. The State Public Service Commissions were constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India. The annual report of the state Public Service Commission regarding its performance is submitted to the governor. The governor then gets this report laid before the state legislature, together with a memorandum explaining the cases where the advice of the commission was not accepted and the reason for such non acceptance.
1060.

The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if –

A. emergency under Article 352 is in operation
B. all the state Assemblies of the country make such a request
C. the President sends such a message to Parliament
D. None of these
Answer» A. emergency under Article 352 is in operation
Explanation: When National emergency 7 under article 352 is in force, the Parliament can make laws on the 66 subjects of the State List (which contains subjects on which the state governments can make laws). Also, all money bills are referred to the Parliament for its approval.
1061.

Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to work for -

A. Uniform Civil Code
B. Organisation of Village Panchayats
C. Constitution of Municipalities
D. Living wages for workers
Answer» B. Organisation of Village Panchayats
Explanation: Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with organisation of village panchayats.
1062.

In Indian Parliament, a bill may be sent to a select committee –

A. after the first reading
B. after the second reading
C. after general discussion during second reading
D. at any stage at the discretion of the Speaker
Answer» D. at any stage at the discretion of the Speaker
Explanation: When a Bill comes up before a House for general discussion, it is open to that House to refer it to a Select Committee of the House or a Joint Committee of the two Houses. A motion has to be moved and adopted to this effect in the House in which the Bill comes up for consideration. In case the motion adopted is for reference of the Bill to a Joint Committee, the decision is conveyed to the other House requesting them to nominate members of the other House to serve on the Committee. The Select or Joint Committee considers the Bill clause by clause just as the two Houses do. Amendments can be moved to various clauses by members of the Committee.
1063.

Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in the case of –

A. Money Bills
B. Non-money bills
C. Setting up of new All-India Services
D. Amendment of the Constitution.
Answer» C. Setting up of new All-India Services
Explanation: Under the Constitution the Rajya Sabha is granted some powers exclusively. The Rajya Sabha, under Article 249, may by a special majority of two-thirds votes adopt a resolution asking the Parliament to make laws on subjects of the State list, in the national interest. Secondly, Rajya Sabha can take steps to create All India Services by adopting resolutions supported by special majority in the national interest. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-third of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, to create one or more all-India services, Parliament by law may provide for such services. Thirdly, Rajya Sabha has the exclusive right to initiate a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President.
1064.

Who is competent to dissolve the Raajya Sabha?

A. The Chairman, Rajya Sabha
B. The President
C. The Joint-session of Parliament
D. None of these
Answer» D. None of these
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third Members of Rajya Sabha retire after every second year. A member who is elected for a full term serves for a period of six years. The election held to fill a vacancy arising otherwise than by retirement of a member on the expiration of his term of office is called `Bye- election'. A member elected in a bye-election remains member for the remainder of the term of the member who had resigned or died or disqualified to be member of the House under the Tenth Schedule.
1065.

Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Councils?

A. The Governor
B. The President
C. The Chief Minister of the State
D. The Prime Minister
Answer» B. The President
Explanation: Article 370 of the Indian constitution is an article that gives autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The article is drafted in Part XXI of the Constitution: Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions.
1066.

Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct?

A. To discuss State matters
B. To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities
C. To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an Undertaking under the control of the Union Government
D. To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial labour
Answer» A. To discuss State matters
Explanation: The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
1067.

Which one of the following fundamental rights was described by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

A. Right to religion
B. Right to constitutional remedies
C. Right to property
D. Right to education
Answer» B. Right to constitutional remedies
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee, called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. Right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.
1068.

No person shall be a citizen of India if he has –

A. lived in a foreign country for more than five years
B. been convicted by a foreign court of law
C. voluntarily acquired citizen ship of another country
D. accepted employment in another country
Answer» C. voluntarily acquired citizen ship of another country
Explanation: Article 9 of the Indian Constitution deals with persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State. It states that no person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of article 6 or article 8, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
1069.

The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as –

A. Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
B. Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
C. Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
D. (4) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Answer» D. (4) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Explanation: The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document. As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a "sovereign democratic republic". In 1976 the Forty-second Amendmentchanged this to read "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic".
1070.

Indian Parliament can rename or redefine the boundary of a State by –

A. a simple majority
B. absolute majority
C. 2/3rd majority of the members voting
D. 2/3rd majority of the members voting and an absolute majority of its total membership
Answer» A. a simple majority
Explanation: Article 3 of the Indian Constitution deals with formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or name of any of the existing States. The States of the Indian Union can be re-organised or their boundaries altered by 1 an executive order of the Union government with the consent of the concerned State government by a simple majority in the ordinary process of legislation
1071.

Constitutional Monarchy means –

A. The Kinmg writes the constitution
B. The King interprets the constitution
C. The King exercises power granted by constitution
D. The King is elected by the the people
Answer» C. The King exercises power granted by constitution
Explanation: Constitutional monarchy is a form of government in which a king or queen acts as Head of State. The Sovereign/Monarch governs according to the constitution - that is, according to rules, rather than according to his or her own free will. The ability to make and pass legislation resides with an elected Parliament.
1072.

What is popular sovereignty?

A. Sovereignty of peoples representative
B. Sovereignty of the legal head
C. Sovereignty of the head of state
D. Sovereignty of the people
Answer» D. Sovereignty of the people
Explanation: Popular sovereignty is the principle that the authority of the government is created and sustained by the consent of its people, through their elected representatives (Rule by the People), who are the source of all political power. It is also known as sovereignty of the people.
1073.

The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the –

A. Preamble
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer» A. Preamble
Explanation: The mind and ideals of the framers of the Constitution are reflected in the Preamble.
1074.

When was our National Anthem first sung and where?

A. 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
B. 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
C. 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
D. 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Answer» D. 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Explanation: Written in highly Sanskritised (Tatsama) Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed and scored by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore. It was first sung in Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress on 27 December, 1911.
1075.

Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution?

A. Parliamentary form of Government
B. independence of Judiciary
C. Presidential form of Government
D. Federal Government
Answer» C. Presidential form of Government
Explanation: 'Presidential Form of Government' is not a feature of Indian Constitution.
1076.

In the Constitution of India, the term 'federal' appears in -

A. The Preamble
B. Part III of the Constitution
C. Article 368
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
Explanation: In the Constitution of India, the term 'federal' appears in the part I of the Constitution. The 'Preamble' is the brief' introduction of the 'Constitution'. It states about 'the People of India' having solemnly into Sovereignty, democracy, justice, liberty, equality etc. Part III constitution deals with 'Fundamental rights (article 12 -35). Article 368 is for provision of amendments in constitution.
1077.

Which is the sourec of political power in India?

A. The Constitution
B. The Parliament
C. The Parliament and the State Legislatives
D. We, the People
Answer» D. We, the People
Explanation: India is a democratic country. People of India elect their representative through direct franchise and representatives elect the government to make or amend rules & regulations and to carry out day to day functioning of governance. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self- governance.
1078.

Which one of the following is a political right?

A. Right to freedom
B. Right to contest elections
C. Right to equality before law
D. Right to life
Answer» B. Right to contest elections
Explanation: Civil and political rights are a class of rights based upon birthright into a polity or designation otherwise of human rights. They ensure a citizen's ability to fully participate in the civil and political life of the state without discrimination or repression, and protect the freedom of classes of persons and individuals from unwarranted infringement into those rights by governments, private organizations, and other entities. Political rights include natural justice (procedural fairness) in law, such as the rights of the accused, including the right to a fair trial: due process; the right to seek redress or a legal remedy; and rights of participation in civil society and politics such as freedom of association, the right to assemble, the right to petition, the right of self-defense, and the right to vote.
1079.

Fundamental Rights in India are guaranteed by it through -

A. The Right to Equality
B. Right Against Exploitation
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Educational and Cultural Rights
Answer» C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Explanation: Right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. For instance, in case of imprisonment, the citizen can ask the court to see if it is according to the provisions of the law of the country. If the court finds that it is not, the person will have to be freed. This procedure of asking the courts to preserve or safeguard the citizens' fundamental rights can be done in various ways. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warrant° and certiorari.
1080.

Right to free education within certain limits is –

A. guaranteed as a Fundamental Right
B. enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy
C. outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution
D. ignored by the Constitution
Answer» A. guaranteed as a Fundamental Right
Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), which was passed by the Indian parliament on 4 August, 2009, describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6and 14 in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution. India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child, when the act came into force on 1 April, 2010.
1081.

Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?

A. At least five years as a Judge of a High Court
B. At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court
C. In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist
D. At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate
Answer» D. At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate
Explanation: Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years, or. an advocate there, for at least ten years, or. a distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president, power conferred by clause (2) of article 124 of the Constitution of India.
1082.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the Constitution of India?

A. It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
B. It contains the language listed in the constitution.
C. It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D. It allocates seats in the council of states.
Answer» D. It allocates seats in the council of states.
Explanation: The fourth schedule of the constitution is about allocation of seats in the council of states. Fourth Schedule [Articles 4(1) and 80(2)] details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.
1083.

In the Indian Constitution, the right to equality is granted by following Articles. They are:

A. Article 16 to Article 20
B. Article 15 to Article 19
C. Article 14 to Article 18
D. Article 13 to Article 17
Answer» C. Article 14 to Article 18
Explanation: Article 14 - Equality before Law Article 15 - Prohibition of Discrimination Article 16 - Equality of Opportunity Article 17 - Abolition of untouchability Article 18 - Abolition of titles.
1084.

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its                 .

A. Advisory Jurisdiction
B. Appellate Jurisdiction
C. Constitutional Jurisdiction
D. Original Jurisdiction
Answer» D. Original Jurisdiction
Explanation: The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its original jurisdiction. The original jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction, when a court has the power to review a lower court's decision. Advisory jurisdiction mentioned under article 143. Appellate jurisdiction comes under article 132. It is the power of a higher court to review decisions and change outcomes of decisions of lower court. In constitutional jurisdiction the power and authority conferred upon a court or judge to pronounce the sentence of law, provided by law upon a state of facts.
1085.

Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by:

A. Powers of the President of India
B. Judicial Review
C. Powers of the Prime Minister of India
D. Leader of the opposition
Answer» B. Judicial Review
Explanation: Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by judicial review. The concept also holds that the legislative body may change or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it is not bound by written law (in some cases, even a constitution) or by precedent.
1086.

Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right.

A. Right to privacy
B. Equality before law
C. Abolition of untouchablity
D. Right to form associations or unions
Answer» A. Right to privacy
Explanation: Judicial activism has brought the Right to Privacy within the realm of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court of India has construed "right to privacy" as a part of the Fundamental Right to "protection of life and personal liberty" under Article 21 of the Constitution, which states "no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedures established by law". In the context of personal liberty, the Supreme Court has observed "those who feel called upon to deprive other persons of their personal liberty in the discharge of what they conceive to be their duty must strictly and scrupulously observe the forms and rules of the law".
1087.

Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

A. Public Accounts Committee
B. Estimates Committee
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Committee on Government Assurances
Answer» B. Estimates Committee
Explanation: The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. A Minister cannot, be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member after his election to the Committee, is appointed a Minister, he ceases to he a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
1088.

Where is the Constitutional power located enabling the Central Government to legislate on cow slaughter?

A. Entry 17, List III in Schedule VII-Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
B. Residuary Powers under Art. 248
C. Emergency Powers
D. Art. 48 in the Directive Principles
Answer» D. Art. 48 in the Directive Principles
Explanation: Article 48 of the Indian Constitution calls upon the state to improve animal husbandry and agriculture. It states that the State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.
1089.

The Vice President of India is elected by–

A. the members of the Parliament
B. the members of the Rajya Sabha
C. the elected members of the Parliament
D. the members of the Parliament and State Legislatures
Answer» C. the elected members of the Parliament
Explanation: The Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of the Parliament. The election of the Vice President is slightly different from the election of the President the members of state legislatures are not part of the Electoral College for Vice Presidential election.
1090.

A Bill referred to a 'Joint Sitting' of the two Houses of the Parliament is required to be passed by –

A. a simple majority of the members present
B. absolute majority of the total membership
C. rd majority of the members present
D. (4) th majority of the members present
Answer» A. a simple majority of the members present
Explanation: In matters pertaining to non- financial (ordinary) bills, after the bill has been passed by the House where it was originally tabled (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), it is sent to the other house, where it may be kept for a maximum period of 6 months. If the other House rejects the bill or a period of 6 months elapses without any action by that House, or the Housethat originally tabled the bill does not accept the recommendations made by the members of the other house, it results in a deadlock. This is resolved by a joint session of both Houses, presided over by the speaker of the Lok Sabha and decided by a simple majority.
1091.

What are national parties?

A. Parties which have units in various states
B. Parties which have no units
C. Parties which have units in two states
D. Parties which have units in all states
Answer» A. Parties which have units in various states
Explanation: There are some countrywide parties called national parties. These have units in various states, all these units follow the same policies, programmers and strategy that is decided at the national level.
1092.

Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court of law?

A. Directive Principles of state policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Free to choose any profession or business
D. Right to move freely to any part of the country
Answer» A. Directive Principles of state policy
Explanation: The Directive principles of state policy are the directions given to the state these cannot be challenged in the court.
1093.

A very good example of sharing power among different social group is -

A. Panchayati Raj system in India
B. Demand for separate Eelam by Tamils
C. Community government in Belgium
D. Federal arrangement in India
Answer» C. Community government in Belgium
Explanation: The community government in Belgium is elected by people belonging to one language community, no matter where they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.
1094.

A ‘republic’ is a state in which the Head of the State is -

A. nominated by the Prime Minister.
B. elected, directly or indirectly, by the people.
C. selected by the ruling party.
D. self-appointed.
Answer» B. elected, directly or indirectly, by the people.
Explanation: A ‘republic’ is a state in which the head of the State is directly or indirectly or appointed by the people. Currently, 135 of their official names.
1095.

The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the –

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Planning Commission
D. National Development Council
Answer» A. Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Vice President also serves as the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Thus apart from holding the executive position of successor' to the President, the Vice President also serves the legislative role of Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
1096.

The Parliament consists of –

A. President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C. Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
D. Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Parishad and Lok Sabha
Answer» A. President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
1097.

Residuary powers in the Indian Constitution have been assigned to –

A. Union Parliament only
B. State Legislatures only
C. Both Union parliament and State Legislatures
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Union Parliament only
Explanation: Article 248 of Indian constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures. It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
1098.

A money bill can be introduced In –

A. either house of the Parliament
B. only Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
C. only House of the People (Lok Sabha)
D. None of the above
Answer» C. only House of the People (Lok Sabha)
Explanation: Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha may not amend money bills but can recommend amendments. The definition of "Money Bill" is given in the Article 110 of the Constitution of India.
1099.

Who was the First Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
B. Hukum Singh
C. Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar
D. K.S. Hegde
Answer» C. Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar
Explanation: Ganesh Yasudev Mavalankar served as the first speaker of the Lok Sabha during 15 May 1952 - 13 January 1956. Earlier, he was the President (from 1946 to 1947) of the Central Legislative Assembly, then Speaker of the Constituent Assembly of India. Note : Ganesh Vasudeva Mavalankar popularly known as Dadasaheb was then Speaker of the Constituent Assembly of India, and later the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. Sumitra Jayant Mahajan is the Speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha (Present). She belongs to Bharatiya JanataParty. In 2014, she got elected to the Lok Sabha for the eighth time, one of three members of the 16th Lok Sabha to do so, and is currently the longest-serving woman member. She has represented the Indore constituency of Madhya Pradesh since 1989.
1100.

The Union Parliament consists of –

A. The President of India
B. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
C. The House of the People (Lok Sabha)
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
Explanation: The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
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