1750+ Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) Solved MCQs

1201.

Who is the Chief Law Officer of the Government of India?

A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Registrar of the Supreme Court
C. The Law Minister of India
D. The Attorney General of India
Answer» D. The Attorney General of India
Explanation: The Attorney General of India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
1202.

Which is the highest body that approves Five Year Plans in the country?

A. Planning Committee
B. Union Cabinet
C. Parliament
D. National Development Council
Answer» D. National Development Council
Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister. It was set up on August 6, 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support or the Plan, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. The Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the union territories and the members of the Commissions. It is an extra- constitutional and non-statutory body. Its status is advisory to planning commission but not binding.
1203.

Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?

A. This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore, universally guarantees education to all citizens of India
B. This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
C. This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
D. This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer» D. This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation: The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved in 2002 providing free and compulsory education to all children age 6 to 14 years has been notified. It included Article 21(1) in the Indian constitution making education a fundamental right.
1204.

The oath of office is administered to the Governor by the:

A. Chief Justice of India
B. Speaker of Legistlative Assembly
C. President
D. Chief Justice of High Court
Answer» D. Chief Justice of High Court
Explanation: As per Article 159 of Indian Constitution, the Governor of a state has to take oath in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that Court available. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President.
1205.

In which way the President can assign any of the functions of the Union Government to the State Government?

A. In his discretion
B. In consultation with the Chief Justice of India
C. In consultation with the Government of the State
D. In consultation with the State Governor
Answer» C. In consultation with the Government of the State
Explanation: Article 258 of Indian constitution states that the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends. There is no corresponding provision enabling the Governor of a State to entrust State functions to the Central Government or its officers.
1206.

Who presides over the Joint Session of Indian Parliament?

A. Speaker of lok Sabha
B. President of India
C. Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
D. Seniomiost Member of Parliament
Answer» A. Speaker of lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sittings of both Houses of Parliament. The joint session of parliament is convened by the President of India.
1207.

Indian Parliament Means –

A. Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha - Prime Minister
C. President of India - Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha
D. President of India - Vice-President of India - Lok Sabha - Rajya Sabha
Answer» C. President of India - Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
1208.

The President of India is elected by –

A. members of both houses of Parliament
B. members of both houses of Parliament and of State legislatures
C. members of both houses of Parliament and of State legislative assemblies
D. elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State legislative assemblies
Answer» D. elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State legislative assemblies
Explanation: The President is indirectly elected by the people through elected members of the Parliament of India (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) as well as of the state legislatures (Vidhan Sabhas), and serves for a term of five years.
1209.

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with :

A. provisions related to the administration of tribal areas.
B. allocation of seats in the Council of States.
C. the Union List, The State List and the Concurrent List.
D. recognized languages of the Union of India.
Answer» B. allocation of seats in the Council of States.
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule [Articles 4(1) and 80(2)] of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.
1210.

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains -

A. provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
B. the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
C. a list of recognized languages
D. provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection
Answer» B. the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and includes The union (central government) state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.
1211.

Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?

A. Governors of States
B. Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
C. Vice-President
D. Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court
Answer» C. Vice-President
Explanation: The Vice President of India is the second-highest office in India, after the President. The Vice President is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting members of both houses of the Parliament. The Vice President would ascend to the Presidency upon the death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations leading to the vacancy in the Office of President.
1212.

What is meant by social justice?

A. All should have same economic rights.
B. All should have same political rights.
C. All kinds of discrimination based on caste, creed, colour and sex should be eliminated.
D. All should be granted right to freedom of religion.
Answer» C. All kinds of discrimination based on caste, creed, colour and sex should be eliminated.
Explanation: Social justice is justice exercised within a society, particularly as it is applied to and among the various social classes of a society. A socially just society is one based uponthe principles of equality and solidarity; and values human rights, as well as recognizing the dignity of every human being.
1213.

The States and the Central Government derive power from -

A. the Constitution of India
B. the President of India
C. the Prime Minister of India
D. the Parliament of India
Answer» A. the Constitution of India
Explanation: The states and the Central Government derive power from the constitution of India.
1214.

President of India exercises his powers

A. either directly or through officers subordinate to him
B. through Ministers
C. through Prime Ministers
D. through Cabinet
Answer» A. either directly or through officers subordinate to him
Explanation: According to the article 53(1) the executive power of the union shall vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this constitution.
1215.

Which of the following categories of citizens of the prescribed age may be registered as a voter?

A. Bankrupt
B. Convicted for certain crimes or corruption
C. Non-resident citizens
D. Mentally unsound
Answer» C. Non-resident citizens
Explanation: The Indian citizenship and nationality law and the Constitution of India provide single citizenship for all of India. The provisions relating to citizenship upon adoption of the constitution are contained in Articles 5 to 11 in Part II of the Constitution of India. There is a form of Indian nationality, the holders of which are known as Overseas Citizens of India. The Constitution of India forbids dual citizenship or dual nationality, except for minors where the second nationality was involuntarily acquired. The Central Indian Government, onapplication, may register any person as an Overseas Citizen of India if that Person is of Indian Origin and is from a country which allows dual citizenship in some form or the other.
1216.

Which of these is NOT included as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution?

A. Right to Freedom of Speech
B. Right to Equality before the Law
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Right to equal wages for equal work
Answer» D. Right to equal wages for equal work
Explanation: The principle of 'equal pay for equal work' has an important place in India. It is read with Article 39(4) and Article 14 of the Constitution of India. During the 1970s and the 1980s, the Supreme Court applied this principle liberally, without demanding clear proof in the pleadings. It is not a fundamental right.
1217.

Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?

A. Written Constitution
B. No State religion
C. Devolution of power to local Government institutions
D. Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer» D. Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Explanation: Democracy is a system of government that allows the citizens to cast vote and elect a government of their choice. Democracy in India gives its citizens the right to vote irrespective of their caste, colour, creed, religion and gender.
1218.

Which of the following may be considered a Pressure Group?

A. Members of the Lok Sabha
B. Member of a Panchayat
C. Members of the cabinet
D. Members of a trade union
Answer» D. Members of a trade union
Explanation: Members of a Trade Union may be considered a pressure Group. A pressure group can be described as an organised group that does not put up candidates for election, but seeks to influence government policy or legislation.
1219.

A seat of a M. P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the house for a continuous period of —

A. Six month
B. Two month
C. Three months
D. None of the above / More than one of the above
Answer» D. None of the above / More than one of the above
Explanation: If for a period of sixty days a member of either House of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant.
1220.

The purpose of an adjournment motion is to —

A. seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill
B. censure the Government
C. propose a reduction in the budget
D. Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance
Answer» D. Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance
Explanation: Adjournment Motion is the procedure for adjournment of the business of the House for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance, which can be moved with the consent of the speaker.
1221.

What is meant when the Constitution declares India a "Secular State"?

A. Religious worship is not allowed
B. Religions are patronised by the State
C. The state regards religions as a private affairs of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis
D. None of these
Answer» C. The state regards religions as a private affairs of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis
Explanation: Secularism is the principle of separation of government institutions, and the persons mandated to represent the State, from religious institutions and religious dignitaries. India is a secular country as per the declaration in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. It prohibits discrimination against members of a particular religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Every person has the right to preach, practice and propagate any religion they choose. The government must not favour or discriminate against any religion. It must treat all religions with equal respect. All citizens, irrespective of their religious beliefs are equal in front of law.
1222.

January 26 selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution because –

A. it was considered to be an auspicious day
B. on that day the. Quit India Movement was started in 1942
C. the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930
D. None of these
Answer» C. the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930
Explanation: The Indian constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on the 26th November, 1949 and it came into force after two months on 26th January, 1950. The day January 26 was chosen because it was this very day when the Poorna Swaraj resolution was made in Lahore in 1930 and the first tricolor of India unfurled.
1223.

The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages?

A. Greater adaptability
B. Strong State
C. Greater participation by the people
D. Lesser Chances of authoritarianism
Answer» B. Strong State
Explanation: A unitary system of government, or unitary state, is a sovereign state governed as a single entity. The central government is supreme and any administrative divisions (sub- national units) exercise only powers that their central government chooses to delegate. Lower- level governments, if they exist at all, do nothingbut implement the policies of the national government.
1224.

Which of the following is the inalienable attribute of the parliamentaiy system of government?

A. Flexibility of the Constitution
B. Fusion of Executive and Legislature
C. Judicial Supremacy
D. Parliamentary Sovereignty
Answer» B. Fusion of Executive and Legislature
Explanation: A parliamentary system is a system of democratic governance of a state in which the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from, and is held accountable to, the legislature (parliament). The executive and legislative branches are thus interconnected.
1225.

Grassroots democracy is related to –

A. Devolution of powers
B. Decentralisation of powers
C. Panchayati Raj System
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
Explanation: Grassroots democracy is a tendency towards designing political processes involving the common people as constituting a fundamental political and economic group. It focuses on people or society at a local level rather than at the center of major political activity. Devolution and decentralization of power and Panchayati raj system are essential elements of such a system.
1226.

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that fundamental rights are unamendable?

A. A. K. Gopalan’s case
B. Keshvananda Bharti's case
C. M. C. Mehta's case
D. Golak Nath's case
Answer» B. Keshvananda Bharti's case
Explanation: In 1967, in Golak Nath vs. The State of Punjab, a bench of eleven judgcs (such a large bench constituted for the first time) of the Supreme Court deliberated as to whether anypart of the Fundamental Rights provisions of the constitution could be revoked or limited by amendment of the constitution. This question had previously been considered in Shankari Prasad v. Union of India and Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan. In both cases, the power to amend the rights had been upheld on the basis of Article 368. Six years later in 1973, thirteen judges of the Supreme Court, including then Chief Justice Sikri, heard arguments in Kesavananda Bharati v. The State of Kerala and thus considered the validity of the 24th, 25th and 29th amendments, and more basically the correctness of the decision in the Golak Nath case. This time, the court held, by the thinnest of margins of 7-6, that although no part of the constitution, including fundamental rights, was beyond the amending power of Parliament (thus overruling the 1967 case), the "basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment".
1227.

Which of the following the basis of languages?

A. Kerala is the first State in India formed on
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer» C. Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The congress in its Jaipur session appointed a three member committee also popularly known as JVP committee after the name of its leaders — Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabh Bhai Patel and Pattabhai Sitaramaya. The committee rejected language as the basis of reorganization of states. Potti Sreeramulu, one of the activists demanding the formation of a Telugu-majority state, died on 16 December 1952 after undertaking a fast-unto-death. This resulted in the creation of the first state on linguistic basis for Telugu speaking people called Andhra State on October 1, 1953. It was later renamed Andhra Pradesh.
1228.

The recommendations of Sarkaria Commission relate to which of the following?

A. Distribution of revenue
B. Power and functions of the President
C. Membership of Parliament
D. Centre-State relations
Answer» D. Centre-State relations
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission's charter was to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India.
1229.

Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with -

A. the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution
B. financial emergency
C. reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
D. Official Language of the Union of India
Answer» A. the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution
Explanation: The Article 368 deals with power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
1230.

Who among the following shall have the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India in performance of his duties?

A. Advocate General
B. Attorney General
C. Additional Advocate General
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Attorney General
Explanation: The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India. He has also the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament.
1231.

Which of the following is a political right?

A. Right to Work
B. Right to Education
C. Right to Freedom of Expression
D. Right to Vote
Answer» D. Right to Vote
Explanation: Right to vote forms one of the constituents of political participation, the bedrock of democracy. It is a political right and encapsulates several other rights.
1232.

The Constitution of India assures economic justice to citizens through –

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental duties
C. Preamble
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer» C. Preamble
Explanation: The preamble contains the socio- economic goals of Indian polity. These are: to secure all its citizens social, economic and political justice; liberty of thought; equality of status and opportunity, and to promote among them fraternity so as to secure the dignity of theIndividual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.
1233.

Who among the following was elected President of India unopposed?

A. Dr Raj endra Prasad
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan
C. Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
D. K R Narayanan
Answer» C. Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
Explanation: Dr. Neelarn Sanj iva Reddy was the sixth President of India. After the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in office, Reddy was elected unopposed. He was only President to be elected thus, after being unanimously supported by all political parties including the opposition Congress party. He was elected president on 21 July 1977.
1234.

What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?

A. A Democratic Republic
B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
C. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
D. A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
Answer» B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
Explanation: The Constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949, and came into effect on 26 January, 1950. As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a "sovereign democratic republic". In 1976 the Forty-second Amendment changed this to read "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic".
1235.

Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System?

A. Dual citizenship
B. Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments
C. Supremacy of the Constitution
D. Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
Answer» A. Dual citizenship
Explanation: Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political system. The Indian Constitution does not allow dual citizenship. Automatic loss of Indian citizenship covered in Section 9(1) of the Citizenship act 1955, provides that any citizen of India who by naturalization or registration acquires the citizenship of another country shall cease to be a citizen of India. Indian Government has started OCI (Overseas citizen of India) Scheme in 2005. According to the scheme if you are already a Person of Indian origin (POI) and have taken up citizenship abroad, you can take up benefits of OCI scheme, which gives you the same travel and residence privileges like other Indians but you are not allowed to vote and take up jobs in Government sector.
1236.

The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the –

A. Simon Commission proposals
B. Cripps proposals
C. Mountbatten plan
D. Cabinet Mission plan
Answer» D. Cabinet Mission plan
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly was set up while India was still under British rule, following negotiations between Inian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India from the United Kingdom.
1237.

The two basic principles of the liberal theory of democracy as emphasised by John Locke, are

A. Universal Adult Franchise and the Right to Property
B. Representative Democracy and Workers' Rights
C. Popular Sovereignty and constitutional government
D. Women suffrage and popular sovereignty
Answer» A. Universal Adult Franchise and the Right to Property
Explanation: John Locke's "Two Treatises on Government" of 1689 established two fundamental liberal ideas: economic liberty (meaning the right to have and use property) and intellectual liberty (including freedom ofconscience). According to Locke, the individual was naturally free and only became a political subject out of free choice. Without the consent of the people there could not be formed a civil society/ community. Secondly, Locke emphasized that all men were equal. There was a perfect state of equality with all the power being reciprocal and no one having more than the other. This is a fundamental principle of present day democracy. From it, flows the democratic principle of universal participation. That no man shall be excluded from the political process.
1238.

The constitution of India describes India as –

A. A Union of States
B. Quasi-federal
C. A federation of state and union territories
D. A Unitary State
Answer» A. A Union of States
Explanation: Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of Slates.
1239.

Direct Democracy is a system of Government in which –

A. People choose the Civil Servants
B. People directly elect their Representatives.
C. People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country.
D. Government officials consult people on various appointments.
Answer» C. People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country.
Explanation: In general, the term "direct democracy" usually refers to citizens making policy and law decisions in person, without going through representatives and legislatures. Direct democracy is a form of democracy in which people vote on policy initiatives directly, as opposed to a representative democracy in which people vote for representatives who then vote on policy initiatives.
1240.

Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India?

A. Fundamental rights
B. Independence of judiciary
C. Federalism
D. The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution
Answer» D. The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution
Explanation: The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India.
1241.

Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a federal system?

A. There are two distinct levels of government
B. The responsibilities and powers of each level of government are clearly defined in a written Constitution
C. There is no separation of powers between the legislative and executive branches of government
D. A Supreme Court is entrusted with the responsibility of interpreting these provisions and arbitrating in matters of dispute
Answer» C. There is no separation of powers between the legislative and executive branches of government
Explanation: One of the features of the federal system is the distribution of power between the federal government and the government of the states. Some powers are given to the federal government and some other remaining powers are given to the government of states. The federal government is powerful over the matter of national (or) general importance. Both federal and state governments functioning strictly within the sphere demarcated for them.
1242.

Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the `Soul' of the constitution?

A. Fundamental rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Preamble
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer» D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Explanation: Article 32 of the Indian constitution is called as the pillar of constitution. About this part of the constitution Dr. Ambedaker has said that it was the soul of Indian Constitution.
1243.

Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution :

A. The Preamble
B. The Fundamental Rights
C. The Directive Principles of State Policy
D. The Seventh Schedule
Answer» C. The Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: Independence of judiciary means a fair and neutral judicial system of a country. Article 50 in the Constitution Of India, belonging to the Directive Principles of State Policy, deals with separation of judiciary from executive. H. says that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the Slate.
1244.

Which of the following is not a 'Fundamental Right'?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Property
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer» B. Right to Property
Explanation: The right to property, also known as the right to protection of property, is a human right and is understood to establish an entitlement to private property. The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31 provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes. The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.
1245.

The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of–

A. United States of America
B. United Kingdom
C. Switzerland
D. Canada
Answer» A. United States of America
Explanation: The development of constitutionally guaranteed fundamental human rights in India was inspired by historical examples such as England's Bill of Rights (1689), the United States Bill of Rights (approved on 17 September, 1787, final ratification on 15 December, 1791) and France's Declaration of the Rights of Man (created during the revolution of 1789, and ratified on 26 August, 1789).
1246.

Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in –

A. High Courts alone
B. Supreme Court alone
C. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
D. All Courts down to the District Courts
Answer» C. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: Indian Constitution has adopted 5 Prerogative writs. Article 13 clearly states that Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights are void. The Supreme Court (Under Article 32) and the High Courts (Under Article 226) are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights against any authority of the State.
1247.

In the absence of both the President of India and the Vice President of India who shall act as the President of India?

A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. A person elected by the Lok Sabha with two third majority
Answer» A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Explanation: The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court acts as the President of India in the absence of both the President of India and the Vice-President of India.
1248.

Which of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India?

A. Returning back an ordinary bill for reconsideration
B. Returning back a money bill for reconsideration
C. Dissolution of Lok Sabha
D. Summoning of the session of the Rajya Sabha
Answer» A. Returning back an ordinary bill for reconsideration
Explanation: The states and the Central Government derive power from the constitution of India.
1249.

The joint session of the two Houses of Parliament is convened –

A. only in case of national emergency
B. when a bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House
C. taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other Hoilse
D. both (2) & (3)
Answer» D. both (2) & (3)
Explanation: In case of a deadlock between the two houses or in a case where more than six months lapse in the other house, the President may summon a joint session of the two houses which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the deadlock is resolved by simple majority. Until now, only three bills: the Dowry Prohibition Act (1961), the Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and the Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002) have been passed at joint sessions.
1250.

The President's Rule is imposed on a State in India, when –

A. The State Cabinet of Ministers resigns
B. The Governor of the State dies
C. The elections are announced
D. There is a Constitutional breakdown
Answer» D. There is a Constitutional breakdown
Explanation: President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India. During President's Rule, a Governor appointed by the Central Government assumes executive authority.
1251.

The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of Judicial review are:

A. Article 21 and Article 446
B. Article 32 and Article 226
C. Article 44 and Article 152
D. Article 17 and Article 143
Answer» B. Article 32 and Article 226
Explanation: Legislature, executive and judiciary under the Constitution are to exercise powers with checks and balances, but not in water-tight rigid mould. In India, on the basis of Articles 32 and 136, the Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial review.
1252.

The `Contingency Fund' of the state is operated by -

A. The Governor of the state
B. The Chief Minister of the state
C. The State Finance Minister
D. None of the above
Answer» A. The Governor of the state
Explanation: Contingency Fund of each State Government is established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution — this is in the nature of an imprest placed at the disposal of the Governor to enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the State Legislature.
1253.

In India, the Residuary Powers are vested with –

A. Union Government
B. State Government
C. Both the Union Government and the State Government
D. Local Government
Answer» A. Union Government
Explanation: The constitution vests the residuary power, i.e., the power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any one of the three lists in the union legislatures (Act. 248). It has been left to the courts to determine finally as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary, power or not.
1254.

Which of the following is not a charged expenditure on the Consolidated Fund of India?

A. Expenditure on Five year plans
B. Expenditure on the chairman and Members of the UPSC
C. Expenditure on the Judges of the Supreme Court
D. None
Answer» A. Expenditure on Five year plans
Explanation: A plan is financed from Balance from Current Revenues (BCR); borrowings including net MCR; Net Flow from Abroad; Gross Budgetary Support for the Plan; Central assistance to States and UTs; Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for Central Plan, Resources of Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs); and Resources for Central Plan. The balance from current revenues available for a 5 year plan depends upon the transferred resources from Centre and State's own revenues (sum of these two equals receipts) along with the relative stability of the non-plan expenditure, i.e. the extent to which a state is able to keep its non-plan expenditure under control.
1255.

The president of India addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session –

A. of each year
B. After each general election to the House of the People
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Article 87(1) of the Constitution provides: "At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons."
1256.

A high court judge addresses his letter of resignation to :

A. The President
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Chief Justice of High Court
D. The Governor of the state
Answer» A. The President
Explanation: High court judge is removed only by the order of the President. The high court judge addresses his letter of resignation to the President.
1257.

Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of Benches?

A. Kolkata High Court
B. Madhya Pradesh High Court
C. Bombay High Court
D. Guwahati High Court
Answer» D. Guwahati High Court
Explanation: Guwahati High Court has the largest number of Benches. The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati in Assam. The court has 3 outlying benches. These are: The Kohima bench for Nagaland state. The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state. The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state.
1258.

Which one of the following is NOT the main jurisdiction of the High Court of a state?

A. Advisory Jurisdiction
B. Original Jurisdiction
C. Supervisory Jurisdiction
D. Appellate Jurisdiction
Answer» A. Advisory Jurisdiction
Explanation: The High Court of India does not have advisory jurisdiction. It has original, appellate and supervisory jurisdiction only. Supervisory jurisdiction refers to power of superior courts of general superintendence over all subordinate courts.
1259.

From which fund can the unanticipated expenditure be met without the prior approval of the Parliament?

A. Consolidated Fund of India
B. Contingency Fund of India
C. Vote-on-Account
D. From the Treasury
Answer» B. Contingency Fund of India
Explanation: A contingencies fund or contingency fund is a fund for emergencies or unexpected outflows, mainly economic crises. The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267 (1) of the Constitution is in the nature of an imprest (money maintained for a specific purpose) which is placed at the disposal of the President to enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the Parliament. Approval of the legislature for such expenditure and for withdrawal of an equivalent amount from the consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained to ensure that the corpus of the Contingency Fund remains intact.
1260.

One of the important attributes of Parliamentary form of government is –

A. Fixed tenure for the executive
B. Executive is answerable to the people
C. Executive is separate from the legislature
D. Collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to the Parliament
Answer» D. Collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to the Parliament
Explanation: the Parliamentary form of government, the Parliament is supreme, and the governments, comprised of some members of the Parliament, are accountable to it. Some of t be featuires of parliamentary form of government in India are: President as Head of state and the Noniinal Executive; Prime Minister as the Head of Government and real center of power; Prime Minister as the Captain of the council of Ministers; Ministerial Responsibility; Individual Responsibility of each Minister; Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers, etc.
1261.

Who of the following enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet?

A. Judge of Supreme Court
B. Secretary to Government of India
C. Political Advisor to PM
D. Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
Answer» D. Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
Explanation: With the prime minister as the ex- officio Chairman, the Planning Commission has a nominated Deputy chairman, who is given the rank of a full Cabinet. Minister. Mr. Mont&Singh Ahluwalla is presently the Deputy Chairman of the Commission.
1262.

Panchayati Raj in India is laid down under:

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principle of State Policy
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Election Commission Act Policy
Answer» B. Directive Principle of State Policy
Explanation: P.R. in India laid down under - DPSP mentioned in Part IV.
1263.

Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of -

A. Grain Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block Samiti
B. Grain Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zila Parishad
C. Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad
D. Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, Block Samiti
Answer» C. Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad
Explanation: Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in which are the basic unit of administrations . It has 3 levels: Gram panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or block samiti or panchayat samiti (block level) and Zila parishad (district level).
1264.

Panchayati Raj is organised at the -

A. block level
B. village, block, district and state level
C. village, block and district level
D. village and block level
Answer» C. village, block and district level
Explanation: Panchayati Raj is organised at the village, block and district level. The 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of Village- level Panchayats, Block-level Panchayats, District-level Panchayats.
1265.

Right to Information in India is a -

A. Fundamental Right
B. Legal Right
C. Both Fundamental and Legal Rights
D. Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right
Answer» A. Fundamental Right
Explanation: Right to information in India is now a fundamental right.
1266.

Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the right to freedom'?

A. When the state disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion
B. When the state disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women
C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
Explanation: 0
1267.

Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to noncitizens?

A. Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
B. Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
C. Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
D. Right to constitutional remedies
Answer» C. Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
Explanation: Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation trade or business is also available to non citizens.
1268.

Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

A. Election Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Planning Commission
D. Union Public Service Commission
Answer» C. Planning Commission
Explanation: After India gained independence, a formal model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the Planning Commission, reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India was established on 15 March, 1950, with PrimeMinister Jawaharlal Nehru as the chairman. The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.
1269.

A member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed by the –

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D. Chairman of the UPSC
Answer» A. President
Explanation: A member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed from office only by an order of the President on the ground of misbehaviour. The President is empowered to remove by order a member of the Commission also on the following grounds: (i) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or (ii) if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside theiduties of his office; or (iii) if he is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or (iv) if he becomes in any way concerned in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or a State Government or in any way participate in its profit or benefits except as an ordinary member of an incorporated company.
1270.

Parliament exercises control over public expenditure through –

A. Advocate General
B. Comptroller and Auditor General
C. Commerce Minister
D. Finance Minister
Answer» B. Comptroller and Auditor General
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is one such post/mechanism by which the Parliament exercises control over public expenditure. He audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. His/her duty is to uphold the constitution of India and laws of the Parliament in the field of financial administration.
1271.

Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Election Commission?

A. To conduct the election of PM of India.
B. To conduct the election of President of India.
C. To give recognition to Polit-ical Parties
D. To assign election symbols to the Political Parties.
Answer» A. To conduct the election of PM of India.
Explanation: After the election results are declared, theparty winning with the majority in the Lok Sabha is invited by the President of India to form the government. The winning party forwards a name of a candidate for the post of Prime Minister to the president. The president then appoints the selected candidate as the Prime minister.
1272.

Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is not correct?

A. It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN
B. It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe.
C. It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights. :
D. It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly.
Answer» A. It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN
Explanation: The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world. The UNHRC has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis. The members of the General Assembly elect the members who occupy the UNHRC's 47 seats. The term of each seat is three years, and no member may occupy a seat for more than two consecutive terms.
1273.

What is the plural voting system?

A. Candidates themselves caste more than one vote
B. Only the higher officials caste more than one votes.
C. Eligible voter exercises one vote and some voters with specific qaulifications cast more than one vote.
D. All the citizens caste three votes each.
Answer» C. Eligible voter exercises one vote and some voters with specific qaulifications cast more than one vote.
Explanation: Plural voting is the practice whereby one person might be able to vote multiple times in an election. This was a common aspect of the franchise for elections held in the 1800s where the right to vote was linked to the ownership of property; an elector could vote in as many districts as the elector owned property. This was the prevalent system in Britain before 1948 when certain electors could vote in more than one constituency.
1274.

The Indian Constitution provides the country with three categories of civil services, namely

A. all India, central and state services
B. administrative, railway and police services
C. administrative, police and revenue services
D. administrative, police and foreign services
Answer» D. administrative, police and foreign services
Explanation: The constitution under Article 312 provides for the establishment of three all- India Civil Services: Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service and Indian Forest Service (IFS). All appointments to All India Civil Services are made by the President of India.
1275.

The Judges of the High Court hold office –

A. during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
B. till they have attained 62 years of age
C. till they have attained 65 years of age
D. as long as they desire
Answer» B. till they have attained 62 years of age
Explanation: The appointment and removal of the Judges of the High Courts are governed by Article 217 of the Indian Constitution. Clause (1) of Article 217 says that "every judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal afterconsultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and, in the case of appointments of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court and shall hold office, in the case of an additional or acting judge, as provided in Article 224, and in any other case, until he attains the age of sixty- two years"
1276.

In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A. Golaknath Case
B. Keshavananda Bharti Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. All the above cases
Answer» C. Minerva Mills Case
Explanation: The Directive Principles have been used to uphold the Constitutional validity of legislations in case of a conflict with the Fundamental Rights. Article 31C, added by the 25th Amendment in 1971, provided that any law made to give effect to the Directive Principles in Article 39(b)-(3) would not be invalid on the grounds that they derogated from the Fundamental Rights onferred by Articles 14, 19 and 31.
1277.

Which one of the following statements about the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not correct?

A. He appoints the Chief Justice of all High Courts.
B. The WI administers the oath of office to the President
C. When both the offices of the President and Vice-President fall vacant simultaneously, the CJI discharges the duties of the President.
D. The CJI can hold his office till he attains the age of 65 years.
Answer» A. He appoints the Chief Justice of all High Courts.
Explanation: Judges in a High Court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the state. The Constitution confers the power of appointment of judges on the President of India.
1278.

A law can be enacted, or executive order issued, even contrary to Article 19, during proclamation of emergency -

A. caused by war or external aggression
B. caused by internal armed rebellion
C. caused by constitutional breakdown
D. caused by financial crisis
Answer» A. caused by war or external aggression
Explanation: Article 358 protects both legislative and executive action taken after the proclamation of emergency. National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 UndoPakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi to escape conviction). In such an emergency, Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended. However, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original Constitution. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.
1279.

The Residuary powers of the Indian Union are –

A. vested with the Centre
B. vested with the States
C. there are no residuary powers
D. they are distributed between the centre and the states.
Answer» A. vested with the Centre
Explanation: Three subject lists, the Union list, the State list, and the Concurrent list, define the legislative powers of each level of government. All residuary powers are vested with the centre.
1280.

The Sociogram' technique is used to study -

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation
Answer» C. Human Relations
Explanation: Sociogram is a graphic representation of the interpersonal relationships within a social group situation for the purpose of discovering group structure or network of relationship patterns and sub-group organization.
1281.

Who is authorized to transfer the judges of one High Court to another High Court?

A. The President
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. A collegium of judges of the Supreme Court.
D. The Law Minister
Answer» A. The President
Explanation: The President may, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, transfer a judge from one high court to any other high court. When a judge has been or is transferred, he shall, during the period he serves,after the commencement of the Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963, as a Judge of the other High Court.
1282.

The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by -

A. President
B. Governor
C. Chief Justice of India
D. President on the advice of Governor of the state concerned and the Chief Justice of India
Answer» D. President on the advice of Governor of the state concerned and the Chief Justice of India
Explanation: Judges in High Court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the state. High Courts are headed by a Chief Justice.
1283.

Which of the following state/Union territories have a common High Court?

A. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
B. Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
C. Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
D. Assam and Bengal
Answer» B. Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
Explanation: Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh share a high court under the High Court (Punjab) Order, 1947.
1284.

Which one of the following appointments is not within the purview of the President of India?

A. Chief Justrice of India
B. Chairman, Finance Commission
C. Chief of Army Staff
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer» D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The speaker is elected in the very first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the general elections for a term of 5 years from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha.
1285.

What are the basic, functions of Public Accounts Committee (PAC)?

A. to examine the statement of accounts showing the income and expenditure of statecorporations, trading and manufacturing schemes and projects.
B. to examine the accounts of stores and stocks.
C. to examine the statement of accounts of autonomous bodies
D. All the above
Answer» A. to examine the statement of accounts showing the income and expenditure of statecorporations, trading and manufacturing schemes and projects.
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament's decision and calls attention to cases of waste, extravagance, loss or nugatory expenditure.
1286.

Which one of the following is not an All India Service?

A. Indian Foreign Service
B. Indian Forest Service
C. Indian Administrative Service
D. Indian Police Service
Answer» A. Indian Foreign Service
Explanation: Initially there were only two All India Services: Indian Administrative Services and Indian Police Service. In 1963, Indian Forest Services, India Engineering Services and Indian Life Science Services were included as All India Services. India Foreign Service comes under the Central Services.
1287.

Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution ensures social and economic democracy?

A. Emergency Provisions
B. Centre - State relations
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: The Part IV of the Constitution of India contains Directive Principles of State Policy covering Articles 3651 that aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.
1288.

Which one of the following is not a Panchayati Raj institution?

A. Gram Sabha
B. Gram Panchayat
C. Nyaya Panchayat
D. Gram Co-operative Society
Answer» D. Gram Co-operative Society
Explanation: Panchayati Raj Institutions include Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat, Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad. Gram Co-operative society is not a PRI.
1289.

When and where Panchayati Raj system in India was introduced?

A. July5, 1957; Firozabad (U.P)
B. October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan)
C. Nov 14, 1959; Ahmedabad (Gujrat)
D. December 3, 1960; Bhopal (MT)
Answer» B. October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan)
Explanation: The panchayat raj system was first adopted by the state of Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct 1959.
1290.

An ordinance issued by Governor is subject to approval by –

A. The President
B. The State Legislature
C. The State Council of Ministers
D. The Parliament
Answer» B. The State Legislature
Explanation: Article 213 of the constitution provides that Governor of the state can promulgate ordinance. The same article states that once an ordinance is passed, it should be placed before Legislative assembly of the state or where there is a legislative council, before both the houses and approved by then within six weeks of their respective dates of reassembly.
1291.

Which one of the following fundamental rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

A. Right to freedom against exploitation
B. Right to freedom of religion
C. Right to equality
D. Right to constitutional remedies
Answer» D. Right to constitutional remedies
Explanation: 0
1292.

According to the Indian Constitution, which one is not included in the fundamental right to equality?

A. Equality before law
B. Social equality
C. Equality of opportunity
D. Economic equality
Answer» D. Economic equality
Explanation: Economic equality is not mentioned in fundamental rights.
1293.

Which of the following is not a fundamental duty under the Indian constitution?

A. To protect monuments of national importance
B. To develop scientific temper
C. To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation
D. None of these
Answer» A. To protect monuments of national importance
Explanation: Protection of monuments of national importance is not a fundamental duty.
1294.

The Chairman of the Finance Cotnmission must be –

A. A person of Finance and Banking field
B. An Economist of high calibre
C. An expert from Judiciary level of High Court Judge
D. A person having experience in Public Affairs
Answer» D. A person having experience in Public Affairs
Explanation: With the objective of giving a structured format to the Finance Commission of India and to bring it at par with world standards, The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 was passed. It lays down rules regarding qualification and disqualification of members of the Commission, their appointment, term, eligibility and powers. The Chairman of the Finance Commission is selectedamong people who have had the experience of public affairs.
1295.

Under single transferable vote system each voter can –

A. Indicate only two preferences
B. Indicate only one preference
C. Indicate one preference less than the seats to be filled up
D. Indicate as many preferences as there arc candidates to be elected.
Answer» D. Indicate as many preferences as there arc candidates to be elected.
Explanation: The single transferable vote (STV) is a voting system designed to achieve proportional representation through ranked voting. Under STV, an elector's vote is initially allocated to his or her most preferred candidate, and then, after candidates have been either elected or eliminated, any surplus or unused votes are transferred according to the voter's stated preferences. The system minimizes "wasted" votes, provides approximately proportional representation, and enables votes to be explicitly cast for individual candidates rather than for closed party lists.
1296.

While dealing with complaints of violation of Human Rights by the members of the armed forces, the Commission either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition will -

A. enquire itself
B. give directions to the concerned police officers to enquire
C. seek a report from the Central Government
D. None of the above
Answer» C. seek a report from the Central Government
Explanation: While dealing with complaints of violation of Human Rights by the armed forces, the Commission either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition will seek a report from the Central Government.
1297.

In the definition of armed forces under the Protection of Human Rights Act, which of the following is not included?

A. Navy
B. Armed Forces of the State
C. Military
D. Air Force
Answer» B. Armed Forces of the State
Explanation: In the definition of armed forces under the Protection of Human Rights Act, Armed Forces of the state are not included.
1298.

A federal government is in the shape of

A. Command by the Centre
B. Appeal from the States
C. Agreement between the Centre and the States
D. Single Party Rule
Answer» C. Agreement between the Centre and the States
Explanation: A federation is a political entity characterized by a union of partially self- governing states or regions under a central (federal) Government. The governmental or constitutional structure found in a federation is marked by agreement between the centre and the states.
1299.

The main feature of the Federal State is

A. Decentralisation
B. Centralisation
C. Theory of separation of powers
D. Sovereignty
Answer» A. Decentralisation
Explanation: Decentralization is one of the key features of a federal state. In a federal state, sovereignty and the power to govern are constitutionally divided between a central governing authority and constituent political units (such as states or provinces).
1300.

Which Committee/Commission examined the Centre and State relationship?

A. Ashok Mehta Committee
B. Indrajit Gupta Committee
C. Sarkaria Commission
D. N.N. Vohra Committee
Answer» C. Sarkaria Commission
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship between state and central governments in India and suggest changes within the framework ofConstitution. It was headed by Justice Raj finder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
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