1750+ Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) Solved MCQs

1601.

Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Indian Parliament?

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Lok Sabha
Explanation: Lok Sabha is also known as the "House of the People" or the lower house. All of its members are directly elected by citizens of India on the basis of Universal Adult franchise, except two who are appointed by the President of India. Every citizen of India who is over 18 years of age, irrespective of gender, caste, religion or race, who is otherwise not disqualified, is eligible to vote for the lok sabha.
1602.

State Governor is appointed by -

A. Central Cabinet
B. Chief justice of Supreme Court
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. President of India
Answer» D. President of India
Explanation: The Governor of the States of India is appointed by the President of India for a period of five years. A Governor is appointed on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the advice of the Prime Minister.
1603.

The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government are paid from the :

A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Treasury of the State Government
C. Contingency Fund of the State
D. Consolidated Fund of the State
Answer» D. Consolidated Fund of the State
Explanation: Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of a State shall be entitled to receive such salaries and allowances as may from time to time be determined, by the Legislature of the State by law and, until provision in that respect is so made, salaries and allowances at such rates and upon such conditions as were immediately before the commencement of this Constitution applicable in the case of members of the Legislative Assembly of the corresponding province. The salary is paid from state consolidated fund.
1604.

The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President's rule in the state

A. on the recommendation of the State Legislature
B. on the recommendation of the President
C. on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
D. if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India
Answer» D. if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India
Explanation: President's rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery of an Indian state. In the event that government in a state is not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes under the direct control of the central government, with executive authority exercised through the Governor instead of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is invoked if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any states of India.
1605.

Can a person who is not a Member of Parliament be appointed as a minister'?

A. No
B. Yes
C. Yes, provided the Parliament approves of such an appointment.
D. Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.
Answer» D. Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.
Explanation: Generally, Ministers are appointed from the legislature. But, an exception to this rule is carved out by the Constitution itself. The combined effect of Articles 75(5) and 88 is that a person not being a Member of either House of Parliament can be a Minister only up to a period of 6 months before which he has to get elected.
1606.

Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

A. Election Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Union Public Service Commission
D. Planning Commission
Answer» D. Planning Commission
Explanation: The Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body and is responsible to formulate five years plan for social and economic development in India.
1607.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Indian Parliament is supreme.
B. The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
C. There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
D. There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer» A. Indian Parliament is supreme.
Explanation: Though the Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India, the legislation passed by parliament may be challenged in Supreme Court. The Parliament is composed of the President of India and the houses. It is a bicameral legislature with two houses: the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
1608.

The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to

A. strengthen Panchayti Raj
B. strengthen rural institutions
C. strengthen urban institution
D. None of the above
Answer» A. strengthen Panchayti Raj
Explanation: The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 accorded the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) a constitutional status. The main features of the 73rd Amendment Act are the following: Constitution of a three tier structure of Panchayats in every stale (at village, intermediate and district levels) having a population of twenty lakhs; Fixed tenure for Panchayat bodies (Article 243E); etc.
1609.

Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of –

A. the Council of Ministers
B. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. the President of India
D. the Cabinet Ministers
Answer» A. the Council of Ministers
Explanation: Article 74 of the Constitution of the Republic of India provides for a Council of Ministers which shall aid the President in the exercise of his functions. Article 75 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
1610.

The Vice-President of India can be removed by the –

A. President on the advice of Council of Ministers
B. Lok Sabha with the consent of the President
C. Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of Lok Sabha
D. Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of the President
Answer» C. Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Vice President does not have to be formally impeached, unlike the President of India. The Constitution states that the Vice President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (more than 50% of effective membership (total membership-vacancies)) and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of voting members) of the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b)).
1611.

A mid-term poll is conducted when –

A. the Lok Sabha is dissolved before completion of its term
B. an elected member resigns from his seat
C. there are discrepancies in voting
D. all MP's of a political party resign
Answer» A. the Lok Sabha is dissolved before completion of its term
Explanation: A midterm election refers to a type of staggered election where the members take office at the middle of the term of another set of members, or of the executive. In India, mid-term polls have taken place several times, reflecting the instability at the centre or states. Normally, the pre-mature dissolution of the Lok Sabha or the State Assemblies calls for such elections.
1612.

If the Anglo-Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by the –

A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Speaker
D. President in consult-ation with the Parliament
Answer» B. President
Explanation: The Constitution limits the Lok Sabha to a maximum of 552 members, including no more than 20 members representing people from the Union Territories, and two appointed non-partisan members to represent the Anglo- Indian community (if the President feels that the community is not adequately represented).
1613.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about Legislative Council?

A. 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies
B. President has the final power to decide about its composition
C. It is not subject to dissolution
D. Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40
Answer» B. President has the final power to decide about its composition
Explanation: President does not has the final power to decide about the legislative council composition.
1614.

The Governor of a State is appointed by

A. the Prime Minister
B. the Chief Justice of India
C. the President
D. the Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer» C. the President
Explanation: The Governor of the States of India is appointed by the President of India for a period of five years. A Governor is appointed on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the advice of the Prime Minister.
1615.

Political right does not include which of the following?

A. Right to vote
B. Right to life
C. Right to contest in election
D. Right to lodge complaint with executive bodies of the Government
Answer» B. Right to life
Explanation: Political rights are those rights by which citizens are given share in the political life of the community including that of the management of government. They generally consist of the following rights: Right to vote; Right to be elected; Right to public offices; Right to petition; Right to criticize government; Right to residence; Right to public meeting, etc. Right to life is a phrase that describes the belief that a human being has an essential right to live, particularly that a human being has the right not to be killed by another human being.
1616.

The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the -

A. Speaker may direct
B. President of India may direct
C. Parliament may decide
D. Finance Minister may decide
Answer» B. President of India may direct
Explanation: According to article 112, the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India forthat year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement.
1617.

Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of -

A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Defence
C. Ministry of External Affairs
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Ministry of External Affairs
Explanation: Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of Ministry of External Affairs.
1618.

The office of the President does not characterize the combination of governmental systems of -

A. Parliamentary and Federal
B. Republican and Parliamentary
C. Presidential and Republican
D. Democratic and Republican
Answer» C. Presidential and Republican
Explanation: President does not characterize the combination of Presidential and Republican governmental system.
1619.

Which of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

A. A single citizenship
B. Dual judiciary
C. Three Lists in the Constitution
D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Answer» D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Explanation: According to the Constitution of India, the role of the Supreme Court is that of a federal court and guardian of the Constitution. The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Ad 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme Court. of India was established.
1620.

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

A. India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
B. India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
D. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Answer» C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
Explanation: In May 2016, India and Iran signed the "historic" Chabahar port agreement, which has the potential of becoming India's gateway to Afghanistan, Central Asia and Europe. So, C is the most fitting answer.
1621.

"Persons may change but rules should not change" is the principle of –

A. Absolute Monarchy
B. Constitutional Government
C. Unwritten Constitution
D. Republic
Answer» B. Constitutional Government
Explanation: Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity— that effectively controls the exercise of political power. Persons do not call the shots or frame rules in such governments. Everything that is to be governed is dictated by set of rules enshrined in the constitution.
1622.

Indian Constitution is -

A. Rigid
B. Flexible
C. Neither rigid nor flexible
D. Partly rigid and partly flexible
Answer» C. Neither rigid nor flexible
Explanation: Indian constitution is neither rigid nor flexible.
1623.

Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries?

A. Ministry of Culture
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Ministry of Human Resource Development
D. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Answer» B. Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: Department of Official language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under Ministry of Home affairs.
1624.

The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was –

A. Nargis Dutt
B. Shabana Azmi
C. Madhubala
D. Meena Kumari
Answer» A. Nargis Dutt
Explanation: Nargis Dutt, born Fatima Rashid but known by her screen name, Nargis, was an Indian film actress. In early 1970s, she became the first patron of Spastics Society of India, and her subsequent work with the organisation brought her recognition as a social worker, and later a Rajya Sabha nomination in 1980.
1625.

The members of the Panchayat Samiti are -

A. nominated by the Block Development officer
B. nominated by the Zila Panchayat Chairman
C. directly elected by the people
D. indirectly electred by the members of the Village Panchayat
Answer» C. directly elected by the people
Explanation: The voters of the State Legislative Assembly of the region directly elect members of the Panchayat Samiti. All the Pradhans of the Gram Panchayat within the block area are also the members of Panchayat Samiti. The elected members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislature belonging to the block or any part of it or the members of the Rajya Sabha residing in that block-all are ex-officio members of the Panchayat Samiti.
1626.

Who amongst the following had demanded first the dominion status for India?

A. Raj Gopalachari and Sardar Patel
B. Pt. Motilal Nehru and Govind Ballabh pant
C. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jay Kar
D. Jawaharlal Nehru and Jag Jeevan Ram
Answer» C. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jay Kar
Explanation: 0
1627.

The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures–

A. Majority Rule
B. Stability in Government
C. Common Politicai Thinking
D. Representation of Minorities
Answer» A. Majority Rule
Explanation: Proportional representation (PR) is a concept in voting systems used to elect an assembly or council. PR means that the number of seats won by a party or group of candidates is proportionate to the number of votes received. It is a voting system whereby successful parties gain seats or majority in a country's legislature and thus are eligible for government formation.
1628.

The Election Commission of India is a :

A. One-member Commission
B. Three-member Commission
C. Five-member Commission
D. Seven-member Commission
Answer» B. Three-member Commission
Explanation: The Election Commission of India consists of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners, appointed by the president of India. Two additional Commissioners were appointed to the commission for the first time on 16 October, 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1 January, 1990. Later, on 1 October, 1993, two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of multimember Commission has been in operation since then.
1629.

Rajya Sabha has no role in –

A. the election of the Vice-President
B. the election of the Speaker
C. the impeachment of the President
D. removal of the judges of the Supreme Court
Answer» B. the election of the Speaker
Explanation: The speaker is elected in the very first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the general elections for a term of 5 years from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha.
1630.

When the posts of both the President and the Vice President are vacant who among the following officiates as President?

A. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
B. The Lt. Governor of Delhi
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. The Prime Minister
Answer» A. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Explanation: The constitution of India provides that the Chief Justice of India shall act as the President of India in the event of the offices of both the President and the Vice President being vacant. When the President, Dr. Zakir Hussain, died in office, the Vice President, Mr. VV Giri, acted as the President.
1631.

The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the Constitution of India expresses -

A. social, political and religious justice
B. social, economic and cultural justice
C. social, economic and political justice
D. economic and political justice
Answer» C. social, economic and political justice
Explanation: The mention of the world ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the Constitution of India expresses social, economic and political justice. Preamble has been amended only once so far during the emergency in India, 7976.
1632.

The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath of office by -

A. the Chief Justice of the High Court
B. the Governor of the State
C. the President of India
D. the Chief Justice of India
Answer» B. the Governor of the State
Explanation: According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath or affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
1633.

The Chief Justice of Uttarakhand who also became the Chief Justice of India —

A. Justice Ashok A. Desai
B. Justice P. C. Verma
C. Justice Barin Ghosh
D. Justice S. H. Kapadia
Answer» D. Justice S. H. Kapadia
Explanation: There are 2 Former chief justices of uttarakhand S.H. Kapadia and J.S. Khehar who later become chief Justice of India.
1634.

Which of the following states are the first states in India where Integrated Criminal Justice System (ICJS) will be launched?

A. Punjab and Haryana
B. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgargh
D. Bihar and Jharkhand
Answer» B. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Integrated Criminal Justice is system in which the courts, police stations, Prosecution, forensic Science laboratories and Jails are integrated. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are the first two states that has chosen the ICJS system.
1635.

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?

A. Federal Government
B. Independence of Judiciary
C. Parliamentary Government
D. Dual Citizenship
Answer» D. Dual Citizenship
Explanation: The idea of single citizenship is borrowed from British constitution.
1636.

Which among the following Writs comes into the category of public litigation petition before High Court or Supreme Court?

A. a challenge to elections of the office-bearers of a political party
B. against political interference
C. against the decision of Lower Court
D. against a general topic
Answer» D. against a general topic
Explanation: Although the proceedings in the Supreme Court arise out of the judgments or orders made by the Subordinate Courts including the High Courts, but of late the Supreme Court has started entertaining matters In which interest of the public at large is involved and the Court can be moved by any individual or group of persons either by filing a Writ Petition at the Filing Counter of the Court or by addressing a letter to the Chief Justice of India highlighting the question of public importance for invoking this jurisdiction. Such concept is popularly known as `Public Interest Litigation' and several matters of public importance have become landmark cases. This concept is unique to the Supreme Court of India only and perhaps no other Court in the world has been exercising this extraordinary jurisdiction.
1637.

India is considered as a `Republic' mainly because :

A. the head of the State is elected.
B. it gained independence on 15th August 1947
C. it has its own written constitution
D. it is having a Parlia-mentaiy form of Government.
Answer» A. the head of the State is elected.
Explanation: A republic is a form of government in which the country is considered a "public matter" (Latin: res publica), not the private concern or property of the rulers, and where offices of states are subsequently directly or indirectly elected or appointed rather than inherited. In modern times, a common simplified definition of a republic is a government where the head of state is not a monarch. In modern republics such as the United States and India, the executive is legitimized both by a constitution and by popular suffrage. Montesquieu included both democracies, where all the people have a share in rule, and aristocracies or oligarchies, where only some of the people rule, as republican forms of government.
1638.

What was the duration in the making Constitution?

A. 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days
B. 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days
C. 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days
D. 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days
Answer» C. 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is the world's longest Constitution. At the time of commencement, the Constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. It consists of almost 80,000 words and took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to make.
1639.

What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly of India?

A. The Resolution of the Indian National Congress
B. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
C. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D. The resolutions of the Provincial/State Legislatures of the Dominion of India
Answer» B. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly was set up while India was still under British rule,following negotiations between Indian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India from the United Kingdom. The Assembly members were elected to it indirectly by the members of the individual provincial legislative assemblies, and initially included representatives for those provinces which came to form part of Pakistan, some of which are now within Bangladesh.
1640.

The Parliament in India is composed of-

A. Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
C. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
D. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer» C. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
Explanation: It is a bicameral legislature composed of the President of India and the two houses: the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and athe Lok Sabha (House of the People).
1641.

Which one of the following is not a part of the 'basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?

A. Rule of law
B. Secularism
C. Republican form of government
D. Parliamentary form of government
Answer» C. Republican form of government
Explanation: Republican form of government is not a part of the 'basic structure' of Indian Constitution. India is a Democratic-republic country. Parliamentary form of government means Prime Minister is the head of the council of ministers.
1642.

What is the basis of classification of governments as unitary and federal?

A. Relationship between legislature and executive
B. Relationship between executive and judiciary
C. Relationship between the Centre and States
D. Relationship between the legislature, executive and judicial wings of government
Answer» C. Relationship between the Centre and States
Explanation: The basic principles of federalism are the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.
1643.

Right to the enjoyment of pollution free water as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Subhas Kumar Vs. State of Bihar (1991) falls under -

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Liberty
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Life and Personal liberty
Answer» D. Right to Life and Personal liberty
Explanation: Right to life and personal liberty is Article 21 of Fundamental rights. Without this right, for an individual to enjoy other fundamental rights become meaningless.
1644.

Economic presence of the government in social realm is found under -

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Policy for determining citizenship
Answer» C. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland and also by the principles of Gandhism; and relate to social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters.
1645.

Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

A. The Constitution creates a strong Centre.
B. The Constitution provides for a single judiciary.
C. The Constitution provides for a common All India Services.
D. The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of the Parliament.
Answer» D. The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of the Parliament.
Explanation: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between central authority and various constituent units of the country.
1646.

The Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of –

A. Religion
B. Caste
C. Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population
D. Colour
Answer» C. Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population
Explanation: There is only one article pertaining to the Minorities in the Constitution of India. Article 30 of the Constitution provides that all minorities, whether based ion religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The Constitution thus envisages that minorities can be based on religion or language. Minorities are identified on the basis of percentage of the population of the Group to the total population.
1647.

A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to –

A. an official to perform public duty
B. the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet
C. the company to raise wages
D. the Government to pay the salaries to employees
Answer» A. an official to perform public duty
Explanation: The term "mandamus" literally means "command." Writ of mandamus is issued to a person or lower level Court or a body by a superior Court. The writ of mandamus is either issued to oblige a person or the Court or a body for the execution of public duty or imposed on them to restrain them from executing a particular act. The writ of mandamus is an effective writ that checks the functioning of the government.
1648.

The President of India takes oath -

A. to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
B. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
C. to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
D. to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country
Answer» D. to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country
Explanation: The President of India takes oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the Jaw of the country.
1649.

The President of India is -

A. the Head of State
B. the Head of Government
C. both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
D. None of the above
Answer» C. both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
Explanation: The President of India is the state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head of t he executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in- chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
1650.

Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?

A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
C. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
D. Governor of a State
Answer» B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Explanation: The appointment to all constitutional posts is made by the President of India. This includes the Chief justice, the Election Commissioner, the CVC and the Chairman of the UPSC and also the officers of All India Services. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.
1651.

If the posts of the President and Vice- president fall vacant, who will act as the President of India?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Union Council of Ministers
Answer» C. Chief Justice of India
Explanation: The Chief Justice of India will act as the President of India if the post of the President and Vice President falls vacant. For instance, when Zakir Hussain died suddenly on 3rd May, 1969, the then Vice President of India Mr. V. V. Giri became the acting President.
1652.

Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) can be imposed on the ground of

A. Defection
B. Contempt of court
C. Death of the PM
D. Signing of a trade treaty with a country
Answer» B. Contempt of court
Explanation: According to Article 19(2), Nothing in sub clause (1) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India.
1653.

In Indian Constitution the power to issue a writ of 'Habeas corpus' is vested only in-

A. The Supreme Court
B. The High Court
C. The Supreme Court and the High Court
D. Lower Courts
Answer» C. The Supreme Court and the High Court
Explanation: In Indian constitution, the power to issue a writ of 'Habeas Corpus' is vested only in the Supreme Court and the High Court. A writ of habeas corpus is a writ (court order) that requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. The principle of habeas corpus ensures that a prisoner can be released from unlawful detention.
1654.

Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court –

A. has final authority in overall cases
B. can declare a state law as unconstitutional
C. can review cases whose decisions have been given by High Court
D. None of the above
Answer» C. can review cases whose decisions have been given by High Court
Explanation: Supreme Court can review cases whose decisions have been given by High Court.
1655.

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its -

A. Advisory Jurisdiction
B. Appellate Jurisdiction
C. constitutional Jurisdiction
D. Original Jurisdiction
Answer» D. Original Jurisdiction
Explanation: The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be categorised as original, appellate and advisory. Under the Original Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can settle disputes (1) between the Centre and one or more States; (2) between the Centre and any State or States on the one side and one or more other States on the other; or (3) between two or more States.
1656.

Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court regarding its judgement?

A. It cannot change the judgement
B. Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement
C. It can change the judgement
D. Only the Ministry of Law can change the judgement.
Answer» C. It can change the judgement
Explanation: Supreme Court can only change its position in a case decided earlier by it where it considers for good and substantial reasons to overrule itself on an application if the need arises.
1657.

Which one of the following subjects comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court?

A. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
B. Mutual disputes among the states
C. Disputes between Centre and States
D. Protection from the violation of the Constitution
Answer» A. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
Explanation: Protection of fundamental rights comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high court.
1658.

The Vice-President of India is also the

A. speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Head of the State
D. Head of the Government
Answer» B. Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Vice President also serves as the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Thus, apart from holding the executive position of successor to the President, the Vice President also serves the legislative role of Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. This unique duality is not shared by any other Commonwealth Country, and was borrowed from the Constitution of the United States.
1659.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently raised the emoluments of President, the Vice-President and the Governors. The emolument payable to the President, has been raised to –

A. Rs. 1.00 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
B. Rs. 1.50 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
C. Rs. 1.75 lakh from Rs. 75,000 per month
D. Rs. 2.00 lakh from Rs. 1.00 lakh per month
Answer» B. Rs. 1.50 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
Explanation: Emoluments of the President, the Vice President and Governors were raised by 300 per cent in 2008. The President's emoluments were raised to Rs 1.50 lakh per month from Rs 50,000. Similarly, the Vice President will get Rs 1.25 lakh — a more than three-time hike from the present salary of Rs 40,000. The salary of governors will also go up from Rs 36,000 to Rs 1.10 lakh. The new emoluments were approved at a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) chaired by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh. The CCEA also rationalized post- retirement benefits to former Presidents, former Vice Presidents and their spouses.
1660.

What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India?

A. Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
B. Conterminous with the tenure of the President
C. As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
D. Five years
Answer» C. As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
Explanation: With India following a parliamentary system of government the Prime Minister is generally the leader of a party (or coalition of parties) that has a majority in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. He remains in office till he enjoys the confidence of the House.
1661.

Who held the office of the Vice- President of India for two consecutive terms?

A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B. Mr. R. Venkataraman
C. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
D. Mr. V.V. Giri
Answer» A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Explanation: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the Vice President of India from 13 May, 1952 to 12 May, 1962. He was the second President of India from 1962 to 1967.
1662.

The provisions of reservation for OBC is made in the Constitution under which Articles?

A. Article 13 (ll) and 14
B. Article 14 and 15
C. Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV)
D. Article 17 and 18
Answer» C. Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV)
Explanation: Under Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV), the provision of reservation for OBC is made in the constitution.
1663.

Which type of emergency has not been declared so far in India?

A. Internal emergency caused due to internal disturbances
B. External emergency caused due to external threat
C. State emergency, caused due to failure of constitutional machinery in the stales
D. Financial emergency
Answer» D. Financial emergency
Explanation: If the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months. It has never been declared. Such a situation had arisen but was avoided by putting the gold assets of India as collateral for foreign credit.
1664.

The Speaker of the lok Sabha enjoys –

A. no right to vote in general circumstances
B. the right to vote only in case of a tie
C. the right to vote like other members of the House
D. the right to vote only once during the term of the House
Answer» B. the right to vote only in case of a tie
Explanation: Normally, the Speaker does not take part in voting in the House. But in case of a tie, he exercises his right of casting vote. His casting vote would decide the issue. In such a case his vote would normally go in favour of the party to which he belongs. Further, when a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is put to vote in the House, he has the right to cast his vote.
1665.

Which of the following rights was considered the "Heart and Soul" of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

A. Freedom of Speech
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer» D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Explanation: Article 32 of the Indian Constitution was described the Right to Constitutional Remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
1666.

According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in-

A. English only
B. Hindi only
C. English and Hindi both
D. All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer» C. English and Hindi both
Explanation: Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament- (1) Notwithstanding anything in part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English.
1667.

Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the following -

A. Consolidated fund of India
B. Consolidated fund of State
C. Subject to the decision of Supreme Court
D. None of these
Answer» A. Consolidated fund of India
Explanation: Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the consolidated Fund of the India.
1668.

If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by -

A. Chief Justice of India
B. President of India
C. Collegiums of judges headed by the Chief Justice of India
D. Three judges committee constituted by the Vice President of India
Answer» A. Chief Justice of India
Explanation: Any question arising as to the age of a judge of a High court, the question shall be decided by chief justice of India.
1669.

When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to -

A. The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court.
B. Special control exercised by the chief justice of India.
C. Discretionary power of the Governor of the State
D. Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Answer» C. Discretionary power of the Governor of the State
Explanation: According to Article 227(b), the Chief Justice of High Court when acts in an administrative capacity, any rules made by him shall not be inconsistent with the provision of any law in force and requires the previous approval of the governor.
1670.

Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India read with -

A. Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws
B. Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a-statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent
C. Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
D. Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income and status
Answer» D. Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income and status
Explanation: Traffic in human beings and beggars and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. The terms 'Socialist' was added by the 42nd Amendment and assert that the government must adopt socialistic policies to ensure decent life for all Indian citizens. Thus, the word Socialist in the preamble of the Constitution of India read with Article 23.
1671.

The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it -

A. uses value loaded words
B. contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers
C. is a source of power and limitation
D. gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution
Answer» B. contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers
Explanation: The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers.
1672.

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

A. The Preamble
B. The Fundamental Rights
C. The Directive Principles of State Policy
D. The Fundamental Duties
Answer» A. The Preamble
Explanation: Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly, had said 'The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long." So "A" is the answer.
1673.

The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to –

A. the Governor
B. the Chief Minister
C. the President of India
D. the Legislative Assembly
Answer» D. the Legislative Assembly
Explanation: In the states, the Governor, as the representative of the President, is the head of Executive, but real executive power rests with the Chief Minister who heads the Council of Ministers. The Council of Ministers of a state is collectively responsible to the elected legislative assembly of the state.
1674.

One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out. Supreme Court, Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG –

A. They are advisory bodies.
B. They are extra constitutional bodies
C. They are controlled by legislature.
D. They are constitutional bodies.
Answer» D. They are constitutional bodies.
Explanation: They are all constitutional bodies. Constitutional Bodies in India are formed by the Constitution which helps the Government to run properly. Each of these permanent or semi- permanent organizations is responsible for the administration of specific functions. Some additional bodies help them by providing advisory functions.
1675.

Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides –

A. 6 freedoms
B. 7 freedoms
C. 8 freedoms
D. 9 freedoms
Answer» A. 6 freedoms
Explanation: The right to freedom in Article 19 guarantees the following six freedoms: Freedom of speech and expression, which enable an individual to participate in public activities; Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms; Freedom to form associations or unions:Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India and freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
1676.

Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discriminaion by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution?

A. Place of birth
B. Race
C. Language
D. Caste
Answer» C. Language
Explanation: Article 15 is about prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It states that no citizen shall, on ground only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to: access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained whole or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of general public.
1677.

In the Constitution of India, the Right to Constitutional Remedies' has been provided in Article –

A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 35
Answer» C. 32
Explanation: The Right to constitutional remedies is given in Article 32 under Part III of the Indian Constitution. it is a fundamental right, and empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.
1678.

Article 324-329 of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?

A. Tribunals
B. Elections
C. Cast System
D. Panchayti system
Answer» B. Elections
Explanation: Laws pertaining to the elections in India are contained in Part XV of the Indian Constitution. The provisions mentioned in the Articles (324 to 329) cover all aspects of conducting elections starting from inclusion of names in electoral roll to formulation of laws pertaining to elections.
1679.

By which Amendment were 'Fundamental Duties' added to the Constitution?

A. 42nd
B. 46th
C. 61st
D. 88th
Answer» A. 42nd
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002.
1680.

Right to Privacy comes under –

A. Article 19
B. Article 20
C. Article 21
D. Article 18
Answer» C. Article 21
Explanation: The Indian constitution does not expressly recognize the right to privacy. But after the case of Kharak Singh vs. State of U.P (1963), the Supreme Court for the first time recognized the right as being implicit in the Constitution under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). The apex court later reinforced Right to privacy as being part of Article 21 in the following cases: Govind vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1975); R. Rajagopat vs. State of Tamil Nadu (1994); PUCL, v. Union of India (1997).
1681.

What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem? (1)

A. 47 seconds
B. (2) 50 seconds
C. 52 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer» C. 52 seconds
Explanation: The composition consisting of the words and music of the first stanza of the late poet Rabindra Nath Tagore's song known as "Jana Gana Mana" is the National Anthem of India. Its playing time is approximately 52 seconds. A short version consisting of the first and last lines of the National Anthem is also played on certain occasions. Playing time of the short version is about 20 seconds.
1682.

What is the motto inscribed under our national emblem?

A. Satyam, Shivam
B. Satyam, Sarvatra, Sundaram
C. Satyameva Jayate
D. Jai Hind
Answer» C. Satyameva Jayate
Explanation: Satyameva Jayate is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Upon independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. The motto of the Czech Republic and its predecessor Czechoslovakia, "Pravda vitezi" ("Truth Prevails") has a similar meaning.
1683.

How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Chakra depicted on the National Flag of India?

A. 16
B. (2) 20
C. 24
D. 32
Answer» C. 24
Explanation: The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction of the Buddhist Dharnia chakra, represented with 24 spokes. It is so called because it appears on a number of edicts of Ashoka, most prominent among which is the Lion Capital of Sarnath. The 12 out of 24 spokes represent the twelve casual links taught by The Buddha. These 12 in reverse represent a total 24 spokes representing the Life-The Dhamrna (Pali).
1684.

Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?

A. 42nd Amendment
B. 62nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 43rd Amendment
Answer» C. 44th Amendment
Explanation: The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. So it is now a legal right, not a fundamental right.
1685.

In the Constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of Welfare State in India?

A. 99
B. 39
C. 38
D. 69
Answer» C. 38
Explanation: One of the salient features of the Indian constitution is the effort to establish a welfare state. Article 38 of the Constitution reads: "The state shall strive to promote the welfare the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice-social economic and political-shall pervade all institutions of national life." provides a broad framework for the establishment of the welfare state ideal.
1686.

By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?

A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 61st
D. 73rd
Answer» C. 61st
Explanation: The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989 lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.
1687.

Indian Constitution can be amended according to the procedure laid down in the following Article

A. Article 368
B. Article 345
C. Article 351
D. Article 333
Answer» A. Article 368
Explanation: The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part >0C (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. It lays down two special methods for the amendment of various parts of the constitution: (1) amendment by 2/3rdmajority of parliament and (2) amendment by 2/3rd majority of the parliament plus ratification by at least half of the several state legislatures.
1688.

Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality before Law?

A. Article – 13
B. Article - 14
C. Article – 15
D. Article - 17
Answer» B. Article - 14
Explanation: Right to equality is given under article 14 of Indian constitution. It ensures that every citizen shall be like-wise protected by the laws of the country. It means that the State will not distinguish any of the Indian citizens on the basis of their gender, caste, creed, religion or even the place of birth.
1689.

The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of

A. Punchhi Commission
B. Sarkaria Commission
C. Rajamannar Commission
D. Mungerilal Commission
Answer» B. Sarkaria Commission
Explanation: Inter State council is a constitutional body set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Order dated 28th May, 1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
1690.

Who was the First Speaker of Independent India's Lok Sabha?

A. Hukam Singh
B. Bali Ram Bhagat
C. Rabi Ray
D. G.V. Mavalankar
Answer» D. G.V. Mavalankar
Explanation: Ganesh Vasudev IVIavatankar popularly known as Dadasaheb was an independence activist, the President of the Central Legislative Assembly, then Speaker of the Constituent Assembly of India, and later the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. Mavalankar remained the President of the Central Legislative Assembly till the midnight of August 14-6-15, 1947 when, under the Indian independence Act 1947, the central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States ceased to exist and the Constituent Assembly of India assumed full powers for the governance of India. Just after independence, Mavalankar headed a committee constituted on August 20, 1947 to study and report on the need to separate the Constitution- making role of the Constituent. Assembly from its legislative role.
1691.

Communism has given importance to –

A. Political equality
B. Economic equality
C. Social equality
D. Natural equality
Answer» B. Economic equality
Explanation: Communism is a revolutionary socialist movement to create a classless and stateless social order structured upon common ownership of the means of production, as well as a social, political and economic ideology that aims at the establishment of this social order. It espouses the goals of common ownership of land and total economic and political equality among citizens.
1692.

Who was the first woman Ambassador from India?

A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Aruna Asaf Ali
C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
D. C.B. Muthamma
Answer» C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
Explanation: Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit became India's ambassador to the Soviet Union from 1947 to 1949, the United States and Mexico from 1949 to 1951, Ireland from 1955 to 1961 (during which time she was also the Indian High Commissioner to the United Kingdom)) and Spain from 1958 to 1961.
1693.

"From each according to his capacity, to each according to his needs" is the principle of –

A. Democracy
B. Fascism
C. Communism
D. Dictatorship
Answer» C. Communism
Explanation: From each according to his ability, to each according to his need (or needs) is a slogan popularized by Karl Marx in his 1875 Critique of the Gotha Program. In the Marxist view, such an arrangement will be made possible by the abundance of goods and services that a developed communist society will produce; the idea is that, with the full development of scientific socialism and unfettered productive forces, there will be enough to satisfy everyone's needs.
1694.

'Democratic Centralism' is an im- portant feature of a :

A. Communist state
B. Democratic state
C. Totalitarian state
D. Socialist state
Answer» A. Communist state
Explanation: Democratic centralism is the name given to the principles of internal organization used by Leninist (communist) political parties, and the term is sometimes used as a synonym for any Leninist policy inside a political party. The democratic aspect of this organizational method describes the freedom of members of the political party to discuss and debate matters of policy and direction, but once the decision of the party is made by majority vote, all members are expected to uphold that decision.
1695.

Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the "Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution"?

A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 356
D. Article 32
Answer» D. Article 32
Explanation: Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. According to this right, a person can move the Supreme Court in case of violation of their fundamental rights. In the Constitution, this right is enshrined in Article 32.
1696.

The Lok Sabha which was elected in 2004 is –

A. the 12th Lok Sabha
B. the 13th Lok Sabha
C. the 14th Lok Sabha
D. the 11th Lok Sabha
Answer» C. the 14th Lok Sabha
Explanation: The 14th Lok Sabha (17 May, 2004 - 18 May, 2009) was convened after the Indian general election, 2004 held in four phases during 20 April - 10 May 2004, which led to the formation of First Manmohan Singh Cabinet (2004---2009).
1697.

Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?

A. S. Radhakrishnan
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Zakir Hussain
D. V.V. Girl
Answer» B. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad was one of the architects of the Indian Republic, having sewed as the president of the Constituent Assembly and later as the first president of independent India. Prasad is the only president to have been elected twice for the office. In 1962, after serving twelve years as the president, he announced his decision to retire.
1698.

Popular sovereignty was advocated by–

A. Rousseau
B. John Locke
C. Thomas Hobbes
D. T.H. Green
Answer» C. Thomas Hobbes
Explanation: Popular sovereignty or the sovereignty of the people is the principle that the legitimacy of the state is created and sustained by the will or consent of its people, who are the source of all political power. It is closely associated with the social contracts school (mid- 17th to mid-18th centuries) , represented by Thomas Hobbes (1588-1679), John Locke (1632- 1704), and Jean-Jacques Rousseau (1712-1778), author of The Social Contract, a prominent political work that clearly highlighted the ideals of "general will" and further matured the idea of popular sovereignty.
1699.

Who was the President of India during Janata Party regime?

A. Fakhruddin All Ahmed
B. N. Sanjeeva Reddy
C. Giani Tail Singh
D. R. Venkataraman
Answer» B. N. Sanjeeva Reddy
Explanation: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the 6th President of India and his tenure was 25 July, 1977 - 25 July, 1982. During his term of office, Reddy had to work with three governments under Prime Ministers Morarji Desai, Charan Singh and Indira Gandhi. Morarji Desai and Charan Singh belonged to the Janata regime.
1700.

Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India in –

A. 1972
B. 1986
C. 1964
D. 1956
Answer» A. 1972
Explanation: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted for protection of plants and animal species. It extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
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