Chapter: Cardiovascular
1.

Regarding ECG changes, which is CORRECT?

A. hypernatraemia is associated with low voltage complexes
B. the first change in hyperkalaemia is prolongation of QRS
C. with hypokalaemia, the resting membrane potential decreases
D. in hyperkalaemia, the heart stops in systole
E. in hypercalcaemia, myocardial contractility is enhanced
Answer» E. in hypercalcaemia, myocardial contractility is enhanced
2.

Regarding jugular pressure waves:

A. the ‘v’ wave denotes the increased atrial pressure due to the bulging of the tricuspid valve during isovolumetric ventricular contraction
B. in tricuspid insufficiency, there is a giant ‘A’ wave with each ventricular systole
C. atrial premature beats produce an ‘A’ wave
D. the ‘v’ wave occurs during systole
E. a giant ‘C’ wave (‘cannon wave’) may be seen in complete heart block
Answer» C. atrial premature beats produce an ‘A’ wave
3.

What factor does not alter cardiac output?

A. standing up
B. sleeping
C. eating
D. exercising
E. pregnancy
Answer» B. sleeping
4.

What is the O2 consumption of a beating heart at rest?

A. 2ml/100g/min
B. 9ml/g/min
C. 2ml/g/min
D. 2L/100g/min
E. 9ml/100g/min
Answer» E. 9ml/100g/min
5.

Regarding percentages of blood volume in the body:

A. the heart has 5%
B. the pulmonary circulation has the greatest percentage
C. the venous circulation has 35%
D. the aorta has 2%
E. capillaries have 20%
Answer» D. the aorta has 2%
6.

What is a biological action of endothelin?

A. dilates vascular smooth muscle
B. produces bronchodilation
C. increase GFR and renal blood flow
D. evokes positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on myocardium
E. inhibits gluconeogenesis
Answer» D. evokes positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on myocardium
7.

What inhibits gene transcription for endothelin-1 secretion:

A. nitric oxide
B. angiotensin II
C. insulin
D. growth factors
E. catecholamines
Answer» A. nitric oxide
8.

Regarding NO synthase:

A. it synthesises nitrous oxide from arginine
B. there are 2 isoforms
C. it is inactivated by haemoglobin
D. NOS-1 is activated by cytokines
E. NOS-2 is in endothelial cells
Answer» C. it is inactivated by haemoglobin
9.

What factor dilates the arterioles?

A. decreased local temperature
B. myogenic theory of autoregulation
C. angiotensin II
D. increased discharge of noradrenergic vasomotor nerve
E. histamine
Answer» E. histamine
10.

Which is NOT a baroreceptor site?

A. right atria at the entrance of SVC and IVC
B. aortic arch
C. left atria at the entrance of the pulmonary veins
D. pulmonary circulation
E. carotid body
Answer» E. carotid body
11.

Regarding cerebrospinal fluid:

A. the total volume of CSF is 300mL
B. CSF is absorbed through the choroid plexus
C. the average CSF pressure is 220m-CSF
D. CSF has a higher pH than plasma
E. it contains very low levels of cholesterol relative to plasma
Answer» E. it contains very low levels of cholesterol relative to plasma
12.

Which substance has equal concentrations in CSF and plasma?

A. Ca2+
B. K+
C. Na+
D. PCO2
E. glucose
Answer» C. Na+
13.

Which vessel has the lowest PO2?

A. maternal artery
B. maternal vein
C. uterine vein
D. umbilical vein
E. umbilical artery
Answer» E. umbilical artery
14.

During exercise:

A. diastolic BP increases more than systolic BP
B. regional blood flow to the brain doubles
C. cardiac output may increase 15-fold
D. after exercise, BP takes longer to return to normal than heart rate
E. O2 consumption of skeletal muscle may increase 100-fold
Answer» E. O2 consumption of skeletal muscle may increase 100-fold
15.

Atrial systole:

A. causes a decrease in atrial pressure
B. causes the ‘A’ wave of the jugular pulse
C. causes the ‘C’ wave of the jugular pulse
D. causes the ‘V’ wave of the jugular pulse
E. causes the dicrotic notch of the aortic pulse
Answer» B. causes the ‘A’ wave of the jugular pulse
16.

The depolarisation of cardiac muscle cells is characterised by:

A. a slow depolarisation, a plateau then a rapid repolarisation
B. initial depolarisation due to a slow Na+ influx
C. repolarisation due to K+ efflux through two types of K+ channels
D. a plateau phase due to slowly opening Na+ channels
E. calcium efflux during the plateau phase
Answer» D. a plateau phase due to slowly opening Na+ channels
17.

Regarding cardiac electrical properties:

A. all cardiac cells have the same resting membrane potential
B. cholinergic fibres act predominantly by blocking tonic sympathetic input
C. discharge rates of pacemaker tissue does not change significantly with temperature
D. the bundle of HIS is not the most rapidly conducting part of the conducting system
E. the last parts of myocardium to depolarise normally do not include the septum
Answer» D. the bundle of HIS is not the most rapidly conducting part of the conducting system
18.

Abnormalities causing ECG changes in myocardial infarction include:

A. delayed repolarisation early on
B. delayed depolarisation
C. increased resting membrane potential
D. TQ segment elevation
E. current flow away from the infarct
Answer» B. delayed depolarisation
19.

Features of the venous system include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. total volume is approximately 55% of the total vascular volume
B. compliance approximately 25 times the arterial side
C. total volume of venules is twice the total capillary volume
D. valves in the cerebral circulation
E. substantial venoconstriction in response to noradrenaline
Answer» D. valves in the cerebral circulation
20.

Arteriolar constriction is caused by:

A. serotonin
B. ANP
C. NO
D. K+
E. histamine
Answer» A. serotonin
21.

Regarding the inputs into the vasomotor centre:

A. baroreceptors causes stimulation
B. chemoreceptors cause inhibition
C. baroreceptors provide significant input below 70mmhg mean arterial pressure
D. atrial stretch receptors inhibit the vasomotor centre
E. direct inputs include pO2
Answer» D. atrial stretch receptors inhibit the vasomotor centre
22.

CSF:

A. volume is about 600ml
B. normal pressure is 5-10cm CSF
C. has a higher concentration of creatinine than plasma
D. has a higher concentration of urea than plasma
E. is formed solely in the choroid plexus
Answer» C. has a higher concentration of creatinine than plasma
23.

Regarding the conduction system of the heart:

A. the right bundle branch (of HIS) divides into anterior and posterior fasicles
B. the AV node contains P cells
C. myocardial fibres have a resting membrane potential of -60mV
D. action potential in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Na+ influx
E. there are two types of K+ channels in pacemaker tissue – transient and long acting
Answer» B. the AV node contains P cells
24.

During systole:

A. the peak left ventricular pressure is 160mmHg
B. contraction of the atria propels 70% of the ventricular filling
C. the period of isovolumetric ventricular contraction is 0.5sec????
D. the end systolic ventricular volume is about 50mL
E. coronary blood flow to subendocardial portions of the left ventricle occur only in systole
Answer» D. the end systolic ventricular volume is about 50mL
25.

Regarding cardiac output:

A. “energy of contraction is proportional to the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibre” is Fick’s Law of the heart
B. cardiac index is the correlation between resting cardiac output and height
C. sleep decreases cardiac output
D. basal O2 consumption by the myocardium is 2ml/g/min
E. standing normally decreases the length of ventricular cardiac muscle fibres
Answer» E. standing normally decreases the length of ventricular cardiac muscle fibres
26.

Effects of electrolyte changes:

A. PR interval increases in hyperkalaemia
B. in hyperkalaemia, the heart stops in systole
C. hypercalcaemia causes prolongation of the ST segments
D. hypernatraemia is associated with low voltage electrocardiographic complexes
E. magnesium counteracts digitalis toxicity
Answer» E. magnesium counteracts digitalis toxicity
27.

Which statement is TRUE regarding cardiac muscle?

A. cardiac muscle fibres are multinucleated
B. they are smaller than skeletal muscle fibres
C. Ca2+ release is triggered by membrane repolarisation
D. the elastic ‘Titin” protein component is greater than in skeletal muscle, adding stiffness
E. the amount of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is decreased by catecholamine stimulation
Answer» B. they are smaller than skeletal muscle fibres
28.

Which statement regarding cardiac “work” is FALSE?

A. the energy applied to the blood stream is defined as kinetic plus potential
B. potential energy involves consideration of energy stored in elastic arterial walls and gravity
C. there is an exchange between kinetic and potential energy
D. the largest drop in energy occurs at the level of the precupillary sphincters
E. the higher resistance in smaller calibre vessels corresponds to greater energy losses
Answer» D. the largest drop in energy occurs at the level of the precupillary sphincters
29.

Which statement about blood flow is FALSE?

A. cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
B. the volume of blood pumped through the lungs equals the volume entering the heart
C. Poiseville’s Law predicts the effects of pressure and resistance on cardiac output
D. the resistance of the systemic circulation is 5 to 10 times the pulmonary vascular resistance
E. with constant pressure, a vessel with radius ‘2X ‘ has 16 times the flow of vessel with radius ‘X’
Answer» B. the volume of blood pumped through the lungs equals the volume entering the heart
30.

Regarding haemodynamic principles, which statement is FALSE?

A. viscosity of blood with haematocrit of 40 is three times that of water
B. ‘arterial’ blood volume is 10-15% total volume
C. ‘elastance’ measures a vessel’s stiffness or recoil
D. aging causes increased elastance and therefore decrease in resting (unstressed) arterial volume
E. an increase in total peripheral resistance leads to increased arterial volume and BP
Answer» D. aging causes increased elastance and therefore decrease in resting (unstressed) arterial volume
31.

Considering conduction rates in myocardial cells, which statement is TRUE?

A. Perkinje fibres are subepicardial and are the largest fibres, 4-7 times the width of other fibres
B. Perkinje fibres are ‘fast fibres’, and can conduct a wave of depolarisation at a speed of 4m/sec
C. the duration of the action potential and refractory period in fast fibres is shorter than slow fibres
D. initial depolarisation occurs in fast fibres with a rapid influx of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. none of the above statements are true
Answer» B. Perkinje fibres are ‘fast fibres’, and can conduct a wave of depolarisation at a speed of 4m/sec
32.

With respect to splanchnic circulation:

A. the liver is approximately 50% blood by volume
B. zone 3 of the hepatic acinus is well oxygenated
C. abdominal viscera receive at 30% cardiac output
D. liver receives blood from hepatic artery (1000???ml/min) and hepatic ??? vein (500ml/min)
E. muscular layer of intestinal wall has higher flow of mucosal layer
Answer» C. abdominal viscera receive at 30% cardiac output
33.

Blood pressure:

A. the sounds of Korotkoff when taking blood pressure are caused by laminar flow
B. the diastolic pressure in resting adults correlates to the muffling of Korotkoff sound
C. pressures obtained by palpation of auscultation methods are usually 2-5mmHg higher
D. if cuff is inflated for some time, it can give falsely low BP readings
E. sounds of Korotkoff occur when velocity of flow through constriction exceeds critical velocity
Answer» E. sounds of Korotkoff occur when velocity of flow through constriction exceeds critical velocity
34.

Coronary circulation:

A. left coronary artery has greater flow in 50% of people
B. thebesian veins connect arterioles to the heart chambers
C. cusps of the aortic valve occlude orifices of coronary arteries during LV ejection
D. coronary flow at rest is 250ml/min
E. at rest, heart extracts 50% O2 / unit of blood delivered
Answer» D. coronary flow at rest is 250ml/min
35.

Which statement is FALSE regarding CVS?

A. the primary function of the CVS uses convection
B. secondary function involves heat control
C. the heart is two pumps operating in parallel
D. the same volume of blood passes through each semilunar valve over time
E. the Frank Starling mechanism is used in balancing the output of both ventricles
Answer» C. the heart is two pumps operating in parallel
36.

Regarding the heart, which is TRUE?

A. the right and left ventricles perform the same amount of work, because the same volume of blood is pumped by each
B. the cross sectional shape of both ventricles is approximately cylindrical
C. the right ventricle pumps by a bellows type mechanism
D. the left ventricle pump action is via reducing cross-sectional area, as a function of radius cubed
E. in pulmonary disease the right ventricle hypertrophies and assumes a crescented shape in cross section
Answer» C. the right ventricle pumps by a bellows type mechanism
37.

Which is FALSE? Stroke Volume varies with changes in:

A. ventricular contractility
B. arterial pressure
C. end diastolic volume of ventricle
D. blood viscosity
E. right ventricle compared to left
Answer» E. right ventricle compared to left
38.

Regarding pressure in circulation, which is FALSE?

A. kinetic energy = M.V2(mass x velocity2)2
B. hydrostatic (gravitational) pressure = potential energy
C. the pressure in a foot vein may be 150 cm??? greater than at aortic root (in upright posture)
D. the same pressure differential applies in arterial system, (in upright posture)
E. the greatest pressure drop occurs in the capillaries
Answer» E. the greatest pressure drop occurs in the capillaries
39.

Regarding volumes in each compartment, which is FALSE?

A. 3% in LV and aorta
B. 15% in arterial system
C. 7% in capillaries
D. 50% in venous system (systemic)
E. 40% in pulmonary circulation
Answer» E. 40% in pulmonary circulation
40.

Regarding pressures, which is FALSE?

A. lateral (static) pressure is reduced but prolonged by elastic arteries
B. static pressure increases with gravitation (hydrostatic) pressure increases
C. static pressure does not include kinetic energy
D. greater resistance to flow through a segment of circulation leads to greater loss of energy through that segment
E. kinetic energy becomes more significant in a narrowed segment and converts back to potential energy when the tube widens
Answer» B. static pressure increases with gravitation (hydrostatic) pressure increases
41.

Regarding flow, which is FALSE?

A. flow is proportional to pressure gradient
B. flow is inversely proportional to resistance
C. Poiseville’s Law relates flow to pressure gradient and factors that influence resistance
D. Poiseville’ Law demonstrates that resistance to flow is largely determined by viscosity and length of tube and radius x 4
E. if radius of a vessel is halved, the flow may be reduced to 1/16th of previous flow
Answer» D. Poiseville’ Law demonstrates that resistance to flow is largely determined by viscosity and length of tube and radius x 4
42.

Which statement about factors affecting blood pressure is FALSE? Factors that increase blood pressure are:

A. increased heart rate
B. increased blood volume
C. pressure rises in increased cardiac output until the amount entering the arterial system equals the amount leaving
D. increased total peripheral resistance
E. increased end systolic volume
Answer» E. increased end systolic volume
43.

Regarding blood pressure, which is TRUE?

A. M.A.P. = pulse pressure / 2 + diastolic pressure
B. elastance increases progressively with age
C. increase in arterial blood pressure causes a subsequent increase in stroke volume
D. increased sympathetic stimulation may sometimes lead to decreased cardiac output
E. pulse pressure increases with age because of decreased arterial elastance
Answer» B. elastance increases progressively with age
44.

Regarding red blood cells, all are true EXCEPT:

A. erythropoiesis is stimulated by anaemia and hypoxia
B. after splenectomy, malaria has a higher mortality
C. normal adult haemoglobin is designated α2 β2
D. about 5% of adult haemoglobin is haemoglobin A2 (α2 δ2)
E. G6PD deficiency increases red cell susceptibility to lysis by drugs and infection
Answer» D. about 5% of adult haemoglobin is haemoglobin A2 (α2 δ2)
45.

Regarding the function of the heart:

A. at increased heart rates, diastole is shortened more than systole
B. the pericardial sac normally contains about 50ml of fluid
C. during the cardiac cycle, left ventricular ejection begins before right ventricular ejection
D. during expiration, the aortic valve closes before the pulmonary valve
E. the end—diastolic ventricular volume is about 170ml
Answer» A. at increased heart rates, diastole is shortened more than systole
46.

Regarding flow in vessels:

A. velocity is greatest closest to blood vessel walls
B. turbulence is almost always present at a Reynold’s number greater than 2,000
C. probability of turbulence in a vessel is directly related to twice the radius
D. flow in vessels is directly related to the fourth power of the ?????
E. turbulence is related to increasing radius
Answer» C. probability of turbulence in a vessel is directly related to twice the radius
47.

Which of the following does not increase the length of ventricular cardiac muscle fibres?

A. increased total blood volume
B. increased venous tone
C. increased pumping action of skeletal muscle
D. increased negative intrathoracic pressure
E. increased intrapericardial pressure
Answer» E. increased intrapericardial pressure
48.

Which of the following does not cause a systolic murmur?

A. aortic stenosis
B. anaemia
C. mitral insufficiency
D. tricuspid stenosis
E. normal flow in children
Answer» D. tricuspid stenosis
49.

Timing of events in the cardiac cycle:

A. right atrial systole begins after left atrial systole
B. the pulmonary closes after the aortic in inspiration
C. right ventricular ejection starts after left ventricular ejection
D. right ventricular systole starts after left ventricular systole
E. right and left atrial systole are synchronous
Answer» B. the pulmonary closes after the aortic in inspiration
50.

Starling’s Law of the heart:

A. is an example of hetermeric regulation
B. is an example of homomeric regulation
C. is explained by troponin / tropomyosin overlap
D. relates stroke volume to cardiac output
E. bears little relation to in vivo regulation of the heart
Answer» A. is an example of hetermeric regulation
51.

The least frequent “ABO” gene is:

A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
E. ABO
Answer» B. B
52.

Stimulation of the right vagus:

A. increases calcium inflow to the SA node
B. decreases calcium inflow to the AV node
C. increases potassium outflow in the SA node
D. increases potassium outflow in the AV node
E. decreases potassium outflow in the SA node
Answer» C. increases potassium outflow in the SA node
53.

Starling’s Law:

A. defines a linear relationship between wall tension and force of contraction of cardiac muscle
B. is approximated by representing wall tension as preload and force of contraction as afterload
C. predicts greater force of contraction when filling pressure is decreased (eg during shock)
D. is explained by an increased availability of intracellular Ca2+
E. describes heterometric autoregulation
Answer» E. describes heterometric autoregulation
Chapter: Endocrine and Gastrointestinal Tract
54.

Which is a water soluble vitamin?

A. D
B. B12
C. A
D. K
Answer» B. B12
55.

Which is not Na+ dependent for absorption?

A. thiamin
B. riboflavin
C. niacin
D. folate
Answer» D. folate
56.

Which is absorbed mainly in the colon?

A. short chain fatty acids
B. calcium
C. vitamin K
D. oligosaccharides
Answer» A. short chain fatty acids
57.

Which is INCORRECT regarding nerve supply to the gut?

A. the blood vessels are known to have enteric, parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation
B. the myenteric plexus lies between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers
C. parasympathetic supply is via vagal and sacral nerve
D. sympathetic supply is often inhibitory on cholinergic postganglionic fibres
Answer» A. the blood vessels are known to have enteric, parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation
58.

Gastrin secretion is stimulated by all but:

A. luminal peptides
B. vagal discharge
C. luminal acid
D. phenylalanine
Answer» C. luminal acid
59.

The actions of gastrin include all but:

A. insulin secretion in response to a carbohydrate meal
B. a trophic effect on colonic mucosa
C. a trophic effect on gastric mucosa
D. pepsin secretion
Answer» A. insulin secretion in response to a carbohydrate meal
60.

Which is NOT an action of CCK?

A. gallbladder contraction
B. increased gastric motility and emptying
C. glucagon secretion
D. secretion of pancreatic juice
Answer» B. increased gastric motility and emptying
61.

Which hormone is most important in insulin secretion?

A. gastrin
B. CCK
C. GIP
D. secretin
Answer» C. GIP
62.

Which produces the majority of salivary volume?

A. lingual glands
B. sublingual
C. parotid
D. submandibular
Answer» D. submandibular
63.

Which nerve is NOT involved in the efferent (motor) swallow reflex?

A. trigeminal
B. vagus
C. facial
D. hypoglossal
Answer» B. vagus
64.

Which is NOT part of the normal content of gastric juice?

A. HPO4 2-
B. mucus
C. lipase
D. amylase
Answer» D. amylase
65.

Chief cells secrete:

A. HCl
B. pepsinogen
C. intrinsic factor
D. HCO3-
Answer» B. pepsinogen
66.

Which stimulates parietal cell secretion?

A. prostaglandins
B. aspirin
C. vinegar
D. acetylcholine
Answer» D. acetylcholine
67.

Regarding bilirubin:

A. unconjugated bilirubin is more soluble than conjugated
B. all conjugated bilirubin is excreted via the intestine
C. bile duct obstruction causes jaundice secondary to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
D. haemolytic anaemia may cause ?????? hyperbilirubinaemia
Answer» D. haemolytic anaemia may cause ?????? hyperbilirubinaemia
68.

Which form of intestinal smooth muscle contraction does NOT occur in normal health?

A. peristalsis
B. weak antiperistalsis
C. peristaltic rushes
D. tonic contractions
Answer» C. peristaltic rushes
69.

In the adrenal medulla:

A. epinephrine is formed by the hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tyrosine
B. 10% of the cells are the epinephrine-secreting type
C. plasma norepinephrine levels are generally unchanged after adrenalectomy
D. catecholamine t1/2 is 10 minutes in the circulation
Answer» C. plasma norepinephrine levels are generally unchanged after adrenalectomy
70.

In the adrenal cortex:

A. the zona glomerulosa has 17 alpha-hydroxylase and no aldosterone synthase
B. all the cholesterol is synthesised from acetate
C. zona fasciculata makes up 10% of the mass of the adrenal gland
D. angiotensin II binds to receptors in the zona reticularis
Answer» E.
71.

Regarding the islets of Langerhans:

A. D cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide
B. A cells are the most common
C. they are most plentiful in the body of the pancreas
D. blood from the islets drain into the hepatic portal vein
Answer» D. blood from the islets drain into the hepatic portal vein
72.

Which factor stimulates insulin secretion?

A. thiazide diuretics
B. phenytoin
C. theophylline
D. β blockers
Answer» C. theophylline
73.

Thyroid hormones increase the oxygen consumption of:

A. lymph nodes
B. spleen
C. brain
D. anterior pituitary gland
Answer» E.
74.

The action of gastrin includes all EXCEPT:

A. stimulation of insulin secretion after a carbohydrate meal
B. stimulation of gastric acid secretion
C. stimulation of gastric motility
D. contraction of gastro-oesophageal junction musculature
Answer» A. stimulation of insulin secretion after a carbohydrate meal
75.

Regarding protein metabolism, which statement is CORRECT?

A. increases the respiratory quotient to values > 1.0
B. has a specific dynamic action (SDA) of approximately 10%
C. endogenous protein breakdown is inhibited by glucagon
D. creatinine excretion is not depressed in starvation
Answer» D. creatinine excretion is not depressed in starvation
76.

Regarding fat metabolism, which statement is CORRECT?

A. ketone bodies accumulate in DKA due to a lack of acetyl-CoA substrate
B. fatty acids are transported in the plasma bound to lipoprotein complexes
C. cholesterol is transported from extra-hepatic cells to the liver by high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in the endogenous pathway
D. eicosanoids are synthesised from cholesterol
Answer» C. cholesterol is transported from extra-hepatic cells to the liver by high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in the endogenous pathway
77.

Thyroxine:

A. is mostly bound to albumin in the plasma, since this has the largest capacity
B. is 2-5 times more potent that triiodothyronine (T3)
C. stimulates TSH release
D. ∼33% is deiodinated in the liver to T3
Answer» D. ∼33% is deiodinated in the liver to T3
78.

Insulin:

A. binds to GLUT 1-5 receptors in the peripheral tissues
B. deficiency results in increased gluconeogenesis
C. has a plasma half-life of 2-3 hours
D. is secreted by the pancreatic A cells
Answer» E.
79.

With respect to calcium metabolism / bone formation:

A. osteoclasts secrete alkaline phosphatase
B. osteoblasts are haemopoietic derivatives of monocyte lineage
C. 1,25(OH)2 ???D3 and PTH stimulate both osteoblasts and osteoclasts
D. oestrogens are thought to be protective of osteoporosis as their main effect is osteoblasts stimulation
Answer» C. 1,25(OH)2 ???D3 and PTH stimulate both osteoblasts and osteoclasts
80.

All of the following, except one, inhibit insulin secretion. Which is it?

A. somatostatin
B. thiazide diuretics
C. propranolol
D. insulin
Answer» E.
81.

All but one of the following compounds releases large amounts of energy on breakdown:

A. cAMP
B. ATP
C. creatine phosphate
D. ADP
Answer» A. cAMP
82.

Which is TRUE?

A. adenosine triphosphate is a low energy phosphate
B. reduction involves loss of hydrogen or electrons
C. oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum
D. ATP is precursor of cyclic AMP
Answer» D. ATP is precursor of cyclic AMP
83.

Small intestine:

A. the ligament of Treitz the jejunum becomes the ileum
B. the distance pylorus to ileocecal valve in living humans is 700cm
C. malabsorption syndrome may develop if 25% of the small intestine is removed
D. colonic peristalsis is the first smooth muscle action of the GIT to return after abdominal operation
Answer» E.
84.

Regarding thyroid hormones:

A. little T3 is produced peripherally by deiodination T4
B. albumin has more capacity to bind thyroid hormones than TBG
C. TBG has less affinity for thyroid hormone than albumin
D. thyroid hormones stimulate lipogenesis
Answer» B. albumin has more capacity to bind thyroid hormones than TBG
85.

A calorie is:

A. standard unit of heat energy necessary to raise the temperature of 1L of water 1° from 15-16°C
B. standard unit of heat energy necessary to raise the temperature of 1gm of mercury 1° from 17-18°C
C. the standard unit of heat energy necessary to raise the temperature of 1gm of water 1° from 17-18°C
D. the standard unit of heat energy necessary to raise the temperature of 1gm of water 1° from 15-16°C
Answer» D. the standard unit of heat energy necessary to raise the temperature of 1gm of water 1° from 15-16°C
86.

Regarding the respiratory quotient:

A. it is the ratio of CO2 to O2 at any time
B. RQ of fat is 0.8
C. increases with hyperventilation
D. increases in metabolic alkalosis
Answer» E.
87.

Regarding basal metabolic rate:

A. it is higher in women
B. it is determined at rest within 12 hours after the last meal
C. increases by 18% for each 1°C of fever
D. is about 40Kcal/m2/h in an average man
Answer» D. is about 40Kcal/m2/h in an average man
88.

Which is NOT a high energy compound?

A. CoA
B. GGP
C. ITP
D. creatine phosphate
Answer» B. GGP
89.

Regarding carbohydrate metabolism:

A. glucokinase is increased in starvation
B. the breakdown of glycogen is called glycolysis
C. the direct oxidative pathway involves the breakdown of glucose through triose
D. the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is irreversible
Answer» D. the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is irreversible
90.

Which is NOT produced by the citric acid cycle?

A. NAD+
B. CO2
C. GTP
D. FADH2
Answer» A. NAD+
91.

Regarding phosphorylase:

A. it clea???? 1:6α linkages in glycogen
B. it is activated by norepinephrine
C. phosphorylase kinase is directly activated by cyclic AMP
D. activation of protein kinase A inhibits glycogen synthesis
Answer» D. activation of protein kinase A inhibits glycogen synthesis
92.

Which amino acid is not found in protein?

A. ornithine
B. arginine
C. valine
D. aspartic acid
E. β-Alanine
Answer» E. β-Alanine
93.

Regarding electrolyte absorption:

A. cholera toxin binds to adenosine diphosphate ribose to the subunit of Gs, stimulative ATPase activity
B. active transport of Na+ into the small intestine enterocytes is coupled with the absorption of glucose
C. magnesium sulphate absorption is coupled with Na+ -K+ -ATPase pump
D. the Na+ -K+ ATPase pumps are located at the luminal membrane of the enterocyte
Answer» E.
Chapter: GI-Digestion-Absorption-Metabolism
94.

Vitamins co-transported with Na+ include all EXCEPT:

A. thiamine
B. folate
C. niacin
D. riboflavin
E. pyridoxine
Answer» B. folate
95.

Fat soluble vitamins include all EXCEPT:

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin C
C. vitamin D
D. vitamin E
E. vitamin K
Answer» B. vitamin C
96.

The largest daily volume of secretions in the GIT originates in the:

A. salivary glands
B. stomach
C. gallbladder (bile)
D. pancreas
E. intestine
Answer» B. stomach
97.

Iron:

A. most dietary iron is in the ferrous state
B. most iron is absorbed in the upper small intestine
C. a ferritin micelle contains 1,000 atoms of iron
D. 90% of body iron is in haemoglobin
E. 10% of dietary iron is normally absorbed
Answer» B. most iron is absorbed in the upper small intestine
98.

Ketone bodies:

A. are not formed under normal conditions
B. are all moderately strong acids
C. are formed when intracellular glucose is deficient
D. are easily metabolised in the liver
E. all of the above
Answer» C. are formed when intracellular glucose is deficient
99.

Creatinuria can occur in all EXCEPT:

A. healthy children
B. pregnant women
C. starvation
D. hypothyroidism
E. poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
Answer» D. hypothyroidism
100.

Cations in normal (fasting) gastric juice include all EXCEPT:

A. Na+
B. Ca++
C. K+
D. Mg++
E. H+
Answer» B. Ca++
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