80+ Railways, Airports, Docks and Harbour Engineering Solved MCQs

1.

             percentage of Indian rails routes are electrified.

A. 66%
B. 25%
C. 45%
D. 76%
Answer» C. 45%
Explanation: it is the fourth largest railway network in the world by size, comprising 119,630 kilometres (74,330 mi) of total track
2.

                         is the predominant gauge used by Indian railways.

A. broad gauge
B. narrow gauge
C. metre gauge
D. standard gauge
Answer» A. broad gauge
Explanation: indian gauge 1,676 mm (5 ft 6 in) (a broad gauge) is the predominant gauge used by ir.
3.

Sleepers (ties) are mostly made up of

A. wood
B. prestressed concrete
C. metal
D. steak
Answer» B. prestressed concrete
Explanation: prestressed concrete is a form of concrete used in construction which is “pre-stressed” by being placed under compression prior to supporting any loads beyond its own dead weight. this compression is produced by the tensioning of high-strength “tendons” located within or adjacent to the concrete volume and is done to improve the performance of the concrete in service.
4.

                     forms the trackbed upon which railroad ties (sleepers) are laid.

A. track ballast
B. concrete ballast
C. rail ballast
D. wooden ballast
Answer» A. track ballast
Explanation: it is packed between, below, and around the ties. it is used to bear the load from the railroad ties, to facilitate drainage of water, and also to keep down vegetation that might interfere with the track structure. this
5.

The surface of the head of each of the two rails can be maintained by using a

A. rail header
B. rail trimmer
C. rail grinder
D. rail cutter
Answer» C. rail grinder
Explanation: a rail grinder (or rail grinder) is a maintenance of way vehicle or train used to restore the profile and remove irregularities
6.

The track and ballast form the

A. temporary way
B. true way
C. rigid way
D. permanent way
Answer» D. permanent way
Explanation: the permanent way is the elements of railway lines: generally the pairs of rails typically laid on the sleepers (“ties” in american parlance) embedded in ballast, intended to carry the ordinary trains of a railway. it is described as permanent way because in the earlier days of railway construction, contractors often laid a temporary track to transport spoil and materials about the site; when this work was substantially completed, the temporary track was taken up and the permanent way installed.
7.

The longest railway platforms is

A. state street subway, chicago
B. gorakhpur railway station, up
C. kharagpur, west bengal
D. kollam junction, kerala
Answer» B. gorakhpur railway station, up
Explanation: • gorakhpur railway station, uttar pradesh, india:1,366.33 m (4,483 ft) (longest in the world).
8.

The design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super elevation, gradient is worst affected by                        

A. length of vehicle
B. width of vehicle
C. speed of vehicle
D. height of vehicle
Answer» C. speed of vehicle
Explanation: all the geometric design features are worst affected by velocity of the vehicle only.
9.

The most raised portion of the pavement is called                        

A. super elevation
B. camber
C. crown
D. kerb
Answer» C. crown
Explanation: the most elevated or the highest portion of a pavement is called as a crown, whereas camber is the portion that is raised for drainage purposes.
10.

The extra width of pavement is provided on                        

A. horizontal curve
B. width of pavement
C. length of pavement
D. super elevation
Answer» A. horizontal curve
Explanation: extra width of the pavement is provided on horizontal curve to avoid the skidding, if the vehicle negotiates the curve then the centrifugal force will act towards outside and there is a chance of skidding, to avoid this extra width is provided.
11.

Transition curve is introduced in

A. horizontal curve
B. circular curve
C. between horizontal curve and circular curve
D. vertical curve
Answer» C. between horizontal curve and circular curve
Explanation: a transition curve is introduced between horizontal curve and circular curve, the transition curve slowly introduces the centrifugal acceleration to avoid the danger of skidding.
12.

The most important factor that is required for road geometrics is                        

A. ssd
B. osd
C. isd
D. speed of vehicle
Answer» D. speed of vehicle
Explanation: the road user characteristics, traffic and vehicular characteristics mostly influence the road geometric design but the most important factor is the speed of vehicle.
13.

The design speed of NH on a cross slope of up to 10% is                        

A. 100kmph
B. 80kmph
C. 60kmph
D. 50kmph
Answer» A. 100kmph
Explanation: the ruling speed up to a cross slope of 10% is 100kmph; it decreases with an increase in increase of cross slope.
14.

A part of pavement raised with respect to one side keeping the other side constant is called                        

A. footpath
B. kerb
C. super elevation
D. camber
Answer» C. super elevation
Explanation: the super elevation is a portion of pavement raised on outer edge with respect to inner edge or both edges raised with respect to centre.
15.

The main purpose of providing camber is

A. to collect storm water
B. to maintain equilibrium
C. to follow irc specifications
D. to follow geometric specifications
Answer» A. to collect storm water
Explanation: during the rainy season the roads are usually flooded with water so to keep the pavement dry they have to be drained off so the road is provided with a camber.
16.

The legal axle load of the design vehicle used in India is?

A. 1.6 tonne
B. 8.2 tonne
C. 16.2 tonne
D. 32.4 tonne
Answer» B. 8.2 tonne
Explanation: the legal axle load used for the design of pavements is 8.2 tonnes; usually they are expressed in msa (million standard axles).
17.

In India, the type of traffic assumed to design pavements is?

A. low traffic
B. heavy traffic
C. mixed traffic flow
D. very low traffic
Answer» C. mixed traffic flow
Explanation: in india generally there is always a mixed traffic flow except during midnight hours and early morning hours, so the designer has to assume mixed traffic flow only.
18.

The final choice of stabilisation technique is based on                      

A. labour
B. material
C. equipment
D. cost
Answer» D. cost
Explanation: though all the equipment, labour and materials are equally important, the final factor is cost.
19.

The flexural strength is based on

A. irc
B. plate test
C. cbr
D. shear
Answer» C. cbr
Explanation: the most commonly used method for testing the strength of the flexible pavement.
20.

How many types of challenges are encountered in bitumen stabilisation?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer» C. three
Explanation: the major problems are choice of stabilisation, design mix and thickness of layer.
21.

The mix design should take into consideration is?

A. stability
B. durability
C. stability and durability
D. age
Answer» C. stability and durability
Explanation: the mix should take into consideration, the stability and durability requirements, strength is also equally important.
22.

The modification factor used in base course thickness is called                      

A. granite equivalence
B. gravel equivalence
C. sand equivalence
D. soil equivalence
Answer» B. gravel equivalence
Explanation: in the thickness of the pavement layer the mix can’t be designed
23.

The colloidal content in BC soils can be up to                      

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
Answer» D. 50%
Explanation: the colloidal content in the soil may be up 50%, which is an undesirable property for pavement.
24.

What is the shrinkage limit value in BC soil?

A. 0%
B. 9%
C. 15%
D. 16%
Answer» C. 15%
Explanation: the bc soils have a less shrinkage limit value from 10% to 15 %, which is a very high value, whereas in sand and silt they don’t exist.
25.

The cement content required for BC soil is

A. high
B. very high
C. low
D. very low
Answer» B. very high
Explanation: the cement content required for the cement is 15 to 25%, so it is not advisable to directly stabilize with cement.
26.

The desert sand is                      

A. strong
B. weak
C. normal
D. unfit for pavements
Answer» B. weak
Explanation: the sand in the desert is very
27.

The water content in the emulsion is about                      

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer» D. 40%
Explanation: the emulsion in the mix consists of 40% of water, hence it is used for stabilisation of desert sand.
28.

The distance shown by red line represents

A. separation
B. parallel way
C. height
D. gauge
Answer» D. gauge
Explanation: during the early days of rail, there was considerable variation in the gauge used by different systems. today, 54.8% of the world’s railways use a gauge of 1,435 mm
29.

Name the organization which is the research and development wing of Indian Railways.

A. cris
B. rdso
C. rsdo
D. irctc
Answer» B. rdso
Explanation: the rdso (research, designs and standards organization) acts as the technical advisor and consultant to the ministry of railways and their production units.
30.

The Railways has a                    degree of freedom for its movement.

A. single
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer» A. single
Explanation: degree of freedom refers to the number of directions in which a vehicle can move. since trains have to run on the provided tracks, their movement is restricted to one direction only, compared to road transport which can move in x, y and z directions.
31.

Track modulus is defined as:

A. load/unit length of sleeper
B. load/unit length of sleeper to produce depression in rail
C. load/unit length of rail to produce depression in sleeper
D. load/unit length of rail to produce unit depression/deflection in track
Answer» D. load/unit length of rail to produce unit depression/deflection in track
Explanation: the track modulus defines the stiffness of track or its load bearing capacity. it is based on the elastic theory. when a load causes a deflection on the top of the rail, the deformation comes on the sleeper, below the rail.
32.

The track modulus is not affected by gauges.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: as the three gauges (narrow- ng, metre –mg and broad-bg) increases, the components of the permanent part (like ballast and sleeper) also increases in size. as a result track modulus also increases. the recommended track modulus is: bg = 70 to 90kg/cm2, mg=42-54kg/cm2 and ng=30kg/cm2.
33.

Which of the following causes stresses in Sleepers?

A. eccentric vertical loads
B. contact shear stress of wheel and rail
C. lateral deflection of sleepers
D. track components
Answer» D. track components
Explanation: the track components like the track modulus, the stiffness of rail, design of the sleeper, sleeper density (number of sleepers provided) and their load bearing capacity are factors which cause stresses in sleepers. the other 3 options are responsible for stresses in rails.
34.

There are                      types of rail sections.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer» B. 3
Explanation: the three types of rail sections
35.

How does the depth of ballast cushion affect rail section?

A. higher the depth bigger the rail section
B. depth is less, bigger the rail section
C. depth is less, smaller the rail section
D. depth and rail section same
Answer» B. depth is less, bigger the rail section
Explanation: the selection of the rail section depends on many factors like heaviest axle loads, maximum permissible speed, type of sleepers and depth of ballast cushion. if the depth of the ballast cushion is less, then a bigger rail section has to be provided.
36.

The mountain alignment can be classified into                    types.

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer» C. 2
Explanation: they are the zig-zag development and the switch back development. in the zig-zag developments, the alignments try to follow the contours of the region to an extent. in the switch back, certain contours like steep slopes have to be negotiated and may use buffer stops.
37.

What must be done to wooden sleepers before use?

A. seasoning
B. washing
C. painting
D. hydrating
Answer» A. seasoning
Explanation: the wood for the sleepers is taken directly from the trees and they contain moisture. in order to reduce the moisture content, seasoning is adopted. in india, air
38.

Airports can be classified on how many basis?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer» B. 4
Explanation: the airports can be classified into 4 on the basis of take-off and landing, geometric design, based on aircraft approach speed (faa) and function.
39.

ICAO classification system considers how many things?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer» A. 2
Explanation: the icao classification system is based on geometric designs broadly. it mainly considers 2 things for its classification
40.

The FAA classification of the airport is based on:

A. function
B. geometric design
C. airport approach speed
D. length of runway
Answer» C. airport approach speed
Explanation: the faa or federal aviation administration classifies on the basis of the aircraft approach speed, given in knots. they are ranging from category a<91 knots to category e>186 knots.
41.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of centralized system of the terminal Area?

A. passengers, cargo routed centrally
B. passenger facilities in small units
C. walking distance to aircraft < 200m
D. common facilities for different gate positions
Answer» B. passenger facilities in small units
Explanation: the passenger facilities are arranged in smaller units or provided separately at different locations in a decentralised system. each unit will have aircraft gate positions.
42.

Which of the below does not affect the site- selection of an airport site?

A. adequate access
B. air traffic potential
C. sufficient airspace
D. number of ground staff
Answer» D. number of ground staff
Explanation: the other 3 options are the specific aspects on which the site-selection is dependent. the site should be accessible by people easily from different locations, there should be potential for air traffic – flight or passenger and sufficient airspace for airports
43.

Runways are oriented in a direction against the prevailing wind.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: the runways are oriented in the direction of the wind so that it can utilize the force provided by the wind for take-off and landing of the aircraft.
44.

The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be:

A. below 4.6km/hr
B. above 5km/hr
C. between 5-10 km/hr
D. below 6.4km/hr
Answer» D. below 6.4km/hr
Explanation: the wind intensity should remain below 6.4km/hr during a calm period and it is the same for all wind direction. it is equal to 100 minus the total wind coverage.
45.

The application of                      diagram is used to find the orientation of the runway to get the desired wind coverage.

A. wind butterfly
B. wind cycle
C. wind star
D. wind rose
Answer» D. wind rose
Explanation: an average date of around 5-10 years of the various components of wind (intensity, duration and direction) of the area is compiled to make a wind rose diagram.
46.

Elevation of airport site above MSL is a factor that controls airport size.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: it is one of the factors. as the elevation increases, the meteorological conditions like air pressure and density reduces. as a result, bigger size of facilities has to be provided.
47.

How many types of Fly Rules are there?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
Answer» A. 2
Explanation: there are 2 fly rules; the vfr (visual flight rules) and ifr (instrumental fly rules). the vfr allows the aircraft to be operated within reasonable conditions by oneself. in ifr, the operations are entirely controlled by instruments. a flight plan is required in both cases.
48.

Term marked by ’?’ in diagram is

A. tip chord
B. root chord
C. thrust
D. lift
Answer» A. tip chord
Explanation: typical wing planform is shown in figure. chord at the fuselage section is called root chord. chord at wing tip is called tip chord. thrust is a propulsive force. lift is an upward force.
49.

Let’s consider flat wrapping is to be used for lofting. If wing has taper ratio of 0.4, span of 26.6ft and root chord Cr is 76in then, find the area to be covered by flat wrapping.

A. 118ft2
B. 200ft2
C. 1600in
D. 10m
Answer» A. 118ft2
Explanation: given, cr = 76in = 76*12ft = 912ft, span b=26.6ft, taper ratio t=0.4
50.

From following diagram find the value of MAC of wing.

A. 5.8m
B. 6.8m
C. 2.5m
D. 10m
Answer» A. 5.8m
Explanation: given, cr = 10m, ct = 2m and taper ratio t = ct/cr = 2/10 = 0.2
51.

Following graph represents          

A. graphical method to find mac
B. graphical method to produce drag
C. graphical method to find lift
D. graphical method to find lift-curve
Answer» A. graphical method to find mac
Explanation: above figure is showing the typical graphical method to find the mac. here, first we project the root chord from tip chord and vice-versa as shown by dashed lines from respective chords. after that we draw a line from which will connect midpoints of root and tip chord. intersection of both lines will provide mac which will be located at y distance from root chord as shown.
52.

For wing to be lofted as shown in below figure, what will be the approximated value of MAC?

A. 8m from l.e.
B. 8m from t.e.
C. 12m from l.e.
D. 12m from t.e.
Answer» A. 8m from l.e.
Explanation: given, cr=12m, ct=3m span = 2*20 = 40m
53.

If wing has MAC of 8m then, what will be the location of aerodynamic centre?

A. 2m from l.e.
B. 2m from t.e.
C. at l.e.
D. at t.e.
Answer» A. 2m from l.e.
Explanation: given, mac = 8m location of aerodynamic center = 25% of mac = 25% of 8 = 0.25*8 = 2m from l.e.
54.

Which of the following is correct in terms of the wing layout with twist?

A. incidence at each span station must be considered and chord should be rotated accordingly
B. only untwist airfoils can be used for layout
C. only rotation of chord line is required at c/6 points
D. only chord line should be rotated by reducing length of chord
Answer» A. incidence at each span station must be considered and chord should be rotated accordingly
Explanation: in general, airfoils are drawn to find the complete wing layout. when wing has some twist then, we need to find incidence at each span station in order to include effects of twist. also chord needs to be rotated accordingly before drawing an actual airfoil for lofting.
55.

Which of the following is correct?

A. generally, tip airfoils are selected for stall characteristics
B. always root airfoils are elected for stall characteristics
C. wing twist will increase thrust by engine
D. wing twist is not considered for layout
Answer» A. generally, tip airfoils are selected for stall characteristics
Explanation: generally, tip airfoils are selected for gentle stall properties. root airfoils are selected for best performance. by doing so we will have better wing which has overall good performance and stall properties.
56.

In linear interpolation method, new airfoil is created as                          

A. weighted average of root and tip airfoil
B. heavier than the root airfoil always
C. higher chord than root always
D. lower chord than tip always
Answer» A. weighted average of root and tip airfoil
Explanation: linear interpolation method is used to create new airfoil station between root and tip airfoil. in general, root airfoil is based on performance and tip is selected for stall properties. linear interpolation will give new airfoil as weighted average of the root and tip airfoil.
57.

3 AIRPORT ZONES - PASSENGER FACILITIES AND SERVICES RUNWAY AND TAXIWAY MARKINGS

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: the runways are oriented in the direction of the wind so that it can utilize the force provided by the wind for take-off and landing of the aircraft.
58.

Which of the following can be considered as inland water transportation?

A. transportation by river
B. transportation by culvert
C. transportation on bridge
D. transportation by barrage
Answer» A. transportation by river
Explanation: inland transportation includes transportation by river or canal, which is considered only for human transportation. in case of ocean transportation, trade and commerce will be conducted with high flexibility.
59.

Which of the following can act as an advantage of water transportation?

A. tides
B. less development
C. costly mode of transportation
D. cheap mode of transportation
Answer» D. cheap mode of transportation
Explanation: there are many advantages while considering water transportation. some of those include the provision of defense, cheap mode of transportation, high load carrying capacity, overall development etc.
60.

Goods can be transported within less time.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: though it is the cheapest mode of transportation, it is more time consuming process. its slow operation makes it a time consuming travel and it can lead to accidents in case of storms.
61.

A basin which can protect water well from the actions of wind and waves can be designated as                       

A. quarry
B. basin
C. harbor
D. port
Answer» C. harbor
Explanation: harbor can be defined as the basin which can protect water well from the actions of wind and waves. this can be along the sea-shore, river estuary, lake or canal, which is connected to the sea shore.
62.

Which of the following is considered in case stable floating condition of ship?

A. vertical measurement
B. horizontal measurement
C. linear measurement
D. draft
Answer» D. draft
Explanation: for having stability in case of floating a ship in the water, a vertical linear draft is considered. this is immersed in the water surface along with the ship for improving the stability.
63.

Which of the following is used as a basis for the classification of harbor?

A. protection
B. placement
C. area
D. climatic condition
Answer» A. protection
Explanation: harbor can be classified based on the protection, utility and the location.
64.

Which of the following will not come under the category of harbor classification?

A. natural harbor
B. semi artificial harbor
C. artificial harbor
D. semi natural harbor
Answer» B. semi artificial harbor
Explanation: under the protection basis, harbor has been classified into 3 types. those include the natural harbor, semi natural harbor and artificial harbor. these are adopted based on the placement of the sea coast.
65.

Bombay harbor will come under the classification of                          

A. semi natural harbor
B. artificial harbor
C. natural harbor
D. semi artificial harbor
Answer» C. natural harbor
Explanation: natural harbor is having a protected inlet from storms and waves, developed by natural land. it can afford safe
66.

On what basis a harbor can be designated as natural roadstead?

A. semi artificial harbor
B. artificial harbor
C. navigable channel
D. semi natural harbor
Answer» D. semi natural harbor
Explanation: the presence of navigable channel with a protective natural bank towards seaward can make a harbor as natural roadstead. these are having naturally developed structures rather than manmade structures.
67.

Which of the following harbor areas are having artificial protection?

A. vishakhapatnam port
B. mumbai port
C. kakinada port
D. yanam port
Answer» A. vishakhapatnam port
Explanation: the provision of artificial protection at the entrance is made to the vishakhapatnam port because it is having protection only on the sides and having more chances of being affected to winds.
68.

Every port is a harbour.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: harbour is an enclosed area where there is storage, refuelling, loading and unloading of cargo facilities. a port is a harbour which provides all facilities for the transfer of cargo as well as passengers. so, all the ports are harbours.
69.

How many components does a harbour comprise of?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer» B. 10
Explanation: the various components of a harbour are entrance channel, break water, turning basin, shelter basin, pier, wharf, quay, dry dock, wet dock and jetty.
70.

The solid parallel platform in a harbour with berthing facility on one side only is:

A. pier
B. quay
C. wharf
D. jetty
Answer» C. wharf
Explanation: a pier is the platform parallel to the shore with berthing possible on both sides, a quay provides berthing on one side and retains earth on other side. a jetty is a platform that is perpendicular to shoreline.
71.

                         is a type of utility based harbour.

A. river harbour
B. artificial harbour
C. commercial harbour
D. canal harbour
Answer» C. commercial harbour
Explanation: the commercial harbour provides facilities for loading/unloading of cargo. an artificial harbour is based on the protection needed. (manmade to protect from storms/waves). river and canal harbours are based on the location of these.
72.

The open type of wharves are made of:

A. timber
B. r.c.c.
C. timber, r.c.c. or both
D. earth or rock fill
Answer» C. timber, r.c.c. or both
Explanation: these have high level decks which are supported by piles and are made of timber, r.c.c or both together. sometimes stressed slab or beam is also used. the solid type wharves are made of earth or rock fill with the bottom made of structures like steel pile cells.
73.

The marine structure located alongside or at the entrance of a pier or a wharf is:

A. pier heads
B. dolphins
C. breakwater
D. fenders
Answer» B. dolphins
Explanation: these structures provide mooring facilities for ships, absorb impact force and shorten the length of a pier or a wharf.
74.

The ferry designs are dependent on:

A. aesthetics
B. length of route
C. country where it is used
D. weather conditions
Answer» B. length of route
Explanation: the ferry designs depend on factors like passenger capacity, speed, water conditions and length of route; ex- a double ended ferry used in states island, washington, which has interchangeable sterns & bows to shuttle the route without turning around.
75.

The alignment of breakwater should be:

A. horizontal
B. straight
C. perpendicular
D. diagonal
Answer» B. straight
Explanation: breakwater is a protection barrier constructed to protect the harbour from the effect of sea waves. its alignment should be straight with an intersection angle within 60o & sometimes curved in the open sea to reduce the effect of waves.
76.

The main objective of transportation is?

A. economical transport of goods
B. economical transport of passengers
C. to generate revenue
D. safe economical and efficient transport of goods and passengers
Answer» D. safe economical and efficient transport of goods and passengers
Explanation: the main objective of a good transportation system is to provide safe economical, efficient transportation for the facility of passengers and the transport of goods.
77.

Which is the most flexible type of transportation available?

A. roadway
B. railway
C. waterway
D. airway
Answer» A. roadway
Explanation: the other 3 types of transport systems have to depend upon the roads to reach their destination point from the terminals that is railway station, harbours and airports.
78.

The transportation system that requires a low initial investment among the following is?

A. roadway
B. railway
C. harbour
D. airport
Answer» A. roadway
Explanation: the roadway requires a cheaper initial investment when compared to the other 3 networks and it is the only system that provides equal facility for everyone in the society.
79.

The road density in India in km per 100 sq. km land area in 2008 is?

A. 100
B. 110
C. 129
D. 150
Answer» C. 129
Explanation: the road density is the mean length of state roads per 100km2 so it is highly uneven in india.
80.

The current road length in India is in which position in the world?

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer» B. 2nd
Explanation: the total roadway length in india is around5, 532,482km in march 2015 which is the 2nd largest network in the world.
81.

The current highway development works in India are undertaken by?

A. nhai
B. govt. of india
C. state governments
D. nhdp
Answer» A. nhai
Explanation: the highway works all across
82.

The scope of highway engineering is divided into how many parts.

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer» B. two
Explanation: the scope of highway engineering is divided into 2 parts called phases and details. in these phases overall review is given and in the details it is planned in detail.
83.

A constant percent chord line is drawn from root airfoil to tip airfoil in linear interpolation method.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
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