150+ Labour Law Solved MCQs

1.

International Labour Organization is an agency of _________.

A. ibrd
B. un security council
C. international fund for agricultural development
D. united nations
Answer» D. united nations
2.

Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?

A. to incite or indulge in willful damage to employer’s property connected with the industry
B. to advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal
C. for a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
3.

Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in ________

A. geneva
B. rome
C. paris
D. tokyo
Answer» A. geneva
4.

The ongoing globalization in the country needs reforms in our labour laws. The forces oppose changes in the existing labour legislations is _______________.

A. government
B. labour and trade unions
C. employers’ associations
D. human rights’ commission
Answer» B. labour and trade unions
5.

Agency of United Nations which deals with international labour standards and providing social protection and working opportunities is ______________

A. international corporation of law
B. international law organization
C. international workforce recruiters
D. international labour organisation
Answer» D. international labour organisation
6.

Labour Policy highlights ________

A. creative measures to attract public and private investment
B. creating new jobs
C. employee-employer relationship
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
7.

_______________ was established as an agency of the League of Nations following the Treaty of Versailles.

A. iol
B. ilo
C. afl
D. un
Answer» B. ilo
8.

Two broad categories of labour law.

A. first, collective labour law relates to the tripartite relationship between employee, employer and union
B. second, individual labour law concerns employees’ rights at work and through the contract for work
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Answer» C. both (a) and (b)
9.

India is permanent member of ILO Governing Body since _______________.

A. 1922
B. 1969
C. 1972
D. 1991
Answer» A. 1922
10.

Which of the following legislations apply to unorganised sector workers in India?

A. minimum wages act
B. child labour (prohibition and regulation) act, 1986
C. contract labour (regulation and abolition) act, 1970
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
11.

ILO overarching goal is _______________.

A. employment
B. high wages
C. education
D. decent work
Answer» D. decent work
12.

India a _______________ member of ILO.

A. founding
B. only
C. sole
D. banned
Answer» A. founding
13.

In industries, it is important for the _______________ to concentrate in areas of harmony.

A. employers
B. public
C. committee
D. government
Answer» D. government
14.

There were no restrictions on child labour till _______________ was implemented.

A. independence
B. labour law
C. commercial law
D. trade union act
Answer» B. labour law
15.

Peace and harmony in organisation is very important for _____

A. gdp
B. economic development
C. manpower
D. none of the above
Answer» B. economic development
16.

For peace and harmony in industries, there is need of _____

A. reward
B. punishment
C. law
D. none of the above
Answer» C. law
17.

Labour issues are solved in _______________.

A. labour court
B. district court
C. high court
D. consumer court
Answer» A. labour court
18.

First Annual Conference International Labour Conference began on 29th October, 1919 in _______________.

A. new york
B. washington dc
C. paris
D. new delhi
Answer» B. washington dc
19.

Labour Law covers ______

A. industrial relations
B. workplace health and safety
C. employment standards
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
20.

Janani Suraksha Yojana 3) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

A. 1, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
21.

Disability cover 3) Old age protection

A. 2, 3
B. 1
C. 1, 3
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
22.

Workers enjoy job security in :

A. organised sector
B. unorganised sector
C. agriculture sector
D. private sector
Answer» A. organised sector
23.

Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?

A. to recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal
B. to discharge or dismiss workmen
C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
D. to indulge in acts of force or violence
Answer» C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
24.

International Labour Organisation was formulated in ______

A. 1925
B. 1939
C. 1919
D. 1929
Answer» C. 1919
25.

PF act is applicable to an establishment engaged in any industry specified in ……...

A. schedule ii
B. hazardous industries list
C. schedule ix
D. schedule i
Answer» D. schedule i
26.

The term “Appropriate Government” is defined in which section of the PF Act?

A. section 2(a)
B. section 2 (b)
C. section 2 (d)
D. section 2 (e)
Answer» A. section 2(a)
27.

According to Section 2(a) which is the appropriate Government for a mine in a given state?

A. state government
B. central government
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer» B. central government
28.

Section 2(aa) of the PF act defines the term ……………

A. basic wages
B. authorised officer
C. government
D. none of these
Answer» B. authorised officer
29.

The term “Basic Wages” is defined in which section of the Provident Fund Act?

A. section 2(g)
B. section 2(d)
C. section 2(b)
D. none of these
Answer» C. section 2(b)
30.

The term contribution is defined in the section ………

A. section 2-bb
B. section 2-bc
C. section 2-cc
D. section 2-c
Answer» D. section 2-c
31.

Section 2(d) of the Provident Fund Act defines ………

A. hazardous process
B. employee
C. employment
D. controlled industry
Answer» A. hazardous process
32.

The term “Employer” is defined in the section ……….. of the PF Act.

A. 2(e)
B. 2(g)
C. 2(f)
D. 2(m)
Answer» A. 2(e)
33.

The term “Employee” is defined in the section …… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 2(ab)
B. 2(g)
C. 2(f)
D. 2(d)
Answer» C. 2(f)
34.

The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section ……. of the PF Act, 1952

A. 2 (gg)
B. 2(hh)
C. 2(ff)
D. 2(cc)
Answer» C. 2(ff)
35.

An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted under section………

A. 26
B. 17
C. 14
D. 20
Answer» B. 17
36.

The term “Exempted Establishment” is defined under which section of the EPF Act, 1952?

A. 2(aaa)
B. 2(ee)
C. 2(j)
D. 2(fff)
Answer» D. 2(fff)
37.

Section 2(g) of the PF Act defines ………………

A. non-exemption
B. exemption
C. factory
D. exempted job
Answer» C. factory
38.

The term “Fund” is defined under section ………. of the PF Act, 1952

A. 2(i)
B. 2(h)
C. 2(k)
D. none of these
Answer» B. 2(h)
39.

Under the PF Act, 1952 “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. unit linked insurance plan
B. deposit linked insurance fund
C. employees’ group accident insurance
D. medical insurance fund
Answer» B. deposit linked insurance fund
40.

The scheme defined under section 2(i-b) of the PF Act, 1952 is ……………..

A. pension scheme
B. provident fund scheme
C. family pension scheme
D. insurance scheme
Answer» D. insurance scheme
41.

The section 2(i-a) of PF Act, 1952 defines………..

A. member
B. insurance
C. insurance fund
D. none of these
Answer» C. insurance fund
42.

The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the Section ……… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 8-a
B. 7-b
C. 6-c
D. 5-d
Answer» C. 6-c
43.

The term “Member” is defined in the section ………… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 2(j)
B. 2(u)
C. 2(m)
D. 2(p)
Answer» A. 2(j)
44.

Section 2(k-A) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………..

A. occupier of the factory
B. pension fund
C. establishment
D. pension scheme
Answer» B. pension fund
45.

The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section (2) of the section ………

A. 8-a
B. 7-a
C. 6-a
D. 5-a
Answer» C. 6-a
46.

Section 2(kb) of the PF Act, 1952 defines ……….

A. recovery amount
B. recovery office
C. recover officer
D. repayment amount
Answer» C. recover officer
47.

Section 2(ll) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………

A. superannuation
B. annual salary
C. scheme policies
D. recovery
Answer» A. superannuation
48.

The Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal which is constituted under sec 7-D is defined under which section?

A. 2(j)
B. 2(k)
C. 2(l)
D. 2(m)
Answer» D. 2(m)
49.

What is the present wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

A. rs. 12,500
B. rs. 15,000
C. rs. 6,500
D. rs. 6,000
Answer» B. rs. 15,000
50.

The Act is applicable to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry specified in Schedule I and in which -------- twenty persons are employed

A. 15 or more
B. 20 or more
C. 10 or more
D. 20
Answer» B. 20 or more
51.

The chairman and members of Central Board constituted under Employees Provident Fund are appointed by

A. supreme court
B. state government
C. central government
D. none of the above
Answer» C. central government
52.

Under this act, how many members are appointed by the Central Government in Central Board representing employees in the establishments to which the Scheme applies

A. 15
B. 10
C. 12
D. 20
Answer» B. 10
53.

The accounts of the Central Board is audited annually by ____

A. central provident fund commissioner
B. any auditor appointed by central government
C. comptroller and auditor-general of india
D. any auditor appointed by the chairman of central board
Answer» C. comptroller and auditor-general of india
54.

The contribution which shall be paid by the employer to the Fund shall be

A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 12%
D. 10%
Answer» C. 12%
55.

An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying with the provisions of section 6 of this act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer» C. 3
56.

This Act shall not apply to any establishment registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912), employing less than ------- persons and working without the aid of power

A. 100
B. 70
C. 50
D. 20
Answer» C. 50
57.

No court inferior to that of ......................class shall try any offence under this Act

A. sureme court
B. presidency magistrate or a magistrate of the first class
C. musiff court
D. high court
Answer» B. presidency magistrate or a magistrate of the first class
58.

Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal was constituted under Section ....... the this act

A. 6d
B. 7c
C. 6a
D. 7d
Answer» D. 7d
59.

Under this act, “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. employees’ group accident insurance
B. unit linked insurance plan
C. deposit linked insurance scheme
D. medical insurance fund
Answer» C. deposit linked insurance scheme
60.

(EPF Scheme) from __________ to __________, with effect from 1 September 2014.

A. rs. 5000/- to rs.12000/-
B. rs. 6500/- to rs.15000/-
C. rs. 6500/- to rs.13000/-
D. rs. 7500/- to rs. 15000/-
Answer» B. rs. 6500/- to rs.15000/-
61.

Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by the Central Implementation Machinery?

A. trade unions act
B. maternity benefit act
C. industrial disputes act
D. employees’ state insurance act
Answer» D. employees’ state insurance act
62.

Under Section 2(12) the Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories employing---------- persons

A. 10 or more
B. 25 or more
C. 20 or more
D. 5 or more
Answer» A. 10 or more
63.

Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year

A. 1976
B. 1961
C. 1923
D. 1948
Answer» A. 1976
64.

The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year

A. 1961
B. 1923
C. 1972
D. 1976
Answer» C. 1972
65.

The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year

A. 1961
B. 1923
C. 1976
D. 1948
Answer» A. 1961
66.

Which of the following benefits is covered under social security schemes?

A. medical facilities
B. retirement benefits
C. compensation facilities
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
67.

Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence of the

A. appeasement theory
B. policing theory
C. benevolence theory
D. religious theory
Answer» A. appeasement theory
68.

The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to

A. 22 years
B. 24 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years
Answer» D. 25 years
69.

Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from contributing employees’ share of ESI contribution.

A. rs 70
B. rs 384.60
C. rs 100
D. rs 50
Answer» C. rs 100
70.

The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is

A. 8.33 %
B. 1.75 %
C. 12 %
D. 4.75%
Answer» D. 4.75%
71.

As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to persons under voluntary retirement scheme also.

A. true
B. false
C. partly true
D. the act is silent
Answer» A. true
72.

Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organisation consisting of representatives of labour, management and Government?

A. payment of bonus act
B. industrial disputes act
C. esi act
D. maternity benefit act
Answer» C. esi act
73.

What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act as per the latest amendment?

A. rs. 25,000 per month
B. rs. 18,000 per month
C. rs. 15,000 per month
D. rs. 20,000 per month
Answer» C. rs. 15,000 per month
74.

Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is

A. 1.75 %
B. 4.75%
C. 12%
D. 8.33%
Answer» A. 1.75 %
75.

Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?

A. employees’ state insurance act
B. payment of bonus act
C. maternity benefit act
D. employees’ compensation act
Answer» A. employees’ state insurance act
76.

’Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in

A. factories act, 1948
B. unorganised sector workers social security act, 2005
C. employee state insurance act, 1948
D. none of the above
Answer» C. employee state insurance act, 1948
77.

Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?

A. employees’ state insurance act, 1948
B. employees’ provident funds act
C. maternity benefit act
D. employees’ compensation act
Answer» A. employees’ state insurance act, 1948
78.

Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?

A. employee who is not liable under the act to pay the employee’s contribution
B. minor employee who is not liable under the act to pay the employee’s contribution
C. employee who is minor
D. none of the above
Answer» A. employee who is not liable under the act to pay the employee’s contribution
79.

What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?

A. list of occupational diseases.
B. list of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
C. list of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
80.

Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend

A. three consecutive meetings
B. three meetings intermittently
C. four consecutive meetings
D. two consecutive meetings
Answer» A. three consecutive meetings
81.

Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?

A. disablement benefit
B. children’s’ allowance
C. sickness benefit
D. unemployment allowance
Answer» B. children’s’ allowance
82.

Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?

A. maternity benefit act
B. employees’ state insurance act
C. employee provident funds act
D. employees’ compensation act
Answer» B. employees’ state insurance act
83.

Dependants’ Benefit paid at the rate of ----------% of wage in the form of monthly payment to the dependants of a deceased Insured person in cases where death occurs due to employment injury or occupational hazards.

A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 75%
Answer» C. 90%
84.

How much amount is payable to the dependents for funeral expenses?

A. rs.15,000/-
B. rs 10000/-
C. rs. 12000/-
D. rs.5000
Answer» B. rs 10000/-
85.

Maternity Benefit for confinement/pregnancy is payable for three months, which is extendable by further one month on medical advice at the rate of full wage subject to contribution for -------- days in the preceding year.

A. 65 days
B. 70 days
C. 91 days
D. 75 days
Answer» B. 70 days
86.

Enhanced Sickness Benefit equal to full wage is payable to insured persons undergoing sterilisation for --------- days for male and ________ female workers respectively.

A. 7 days and 14 days
B. 14 days and 7 days
C. 5 days and 10 days
D. 6 days and 14 days
Answer» A. 7 days and 14 days
87.

Extended Sickness Benefit(ESB) is extendable upto two years in the case of 34 malignant and long-term diseases at an enhanced rate of -------- percent of wages.

A. 90%
B. 85%
C. 75%
D. 80%
Answer» D. 80%
88.

In order to qualify for sickness benefit, the insured worker is required to contribute for ------- days in a contribution period of 6 months.

A. 78 days
B. 60 days
C. 75 days
D. 91 days
Answer» A. 78 days
89.

Sickness benefit in the form of cash compensation at the rate of 70 per cent of wages is payable to insured workers during the periods of certified sickness for a maximum of ------ days in a year.

A. 90 days
B. 91 days
C. 75 days
D. 100 days
Answer» B. 91 days
90.

Medical care is provided to retired and permanently disabled insured persons and their spouses on payment of a token annual premium of ----------

A. rs.125/-
B. rs.100/-
C. rs.120/-
D. rs.75/-
Answer» C. rs.120/-
91.

The State Governments, as per provisions of the Act, contribute 1/8th of the expenditure of medical benefit within a per capita ceiling of --------- per Insured Person per annum.

A. rs.1000/-
B. rs.2000/-
C. rs.850/-
D. rs.1500/-
Answer» D. rs.1500/-
92.

The employee welfare facilities available outside the organisation are called

A. extra-mural facilities
B. extravagance
C. intra-mural facilities
D. none of the above
Answer» A. extra-mural facilities
93.

The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization are called

A. intra-mural facilities
B. extravagance
C. extra-mural facilities
D. none of the above
Answer» A. intra-mural facilities
94.

Who among the following has the responsibility for employee welfare?

A. state government
B. central government
C. employers
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
95.

An inclination to do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities. This is the assumption of the

A. benevolence theory
B. appeasement theory
C. policing theory
D. religious theory
Answer» A. benevolence theory
96.

In the absence of statutory requirements, the employers may not provide even the basic facilities to the employees. This is the basic assumption of the

A. religious theory
B. policing theory
C. benevolence theory
D. none of the above
Answer» B. policing theory
97.

Which is the year for "The Declaration of the Rights of Child"?

A. 1967
B. 1962
C. 1960
D. 1959
Answer» D. 1959
98.

When was the "International Convention on the Rights of Child" adopted by the General Assembly?

A. 20/11/1989
B. 12/12/1990
C. 26/01/1995
D. 15/08/1999
Answer» A. 20/11/1989
99.

Who was the President of the General Assembly, when the International Convention on the Rights of Child was adopted by the General Assembly?

A. mr. joseph n garba
B. mr. martin j garba
C. mr. suresh s
D. mr. ajay chauhan
Answer» A. mr. joseph n garba
100.

The International Convention on the Rights of Child consisted of how many Articles when it was presented to the General Assembly?

A. 95
B. 84
C. 55
D. 35
Answer» D. 35
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