120+ Land Laws Solved MCQs

1.

Article 19(1)(f) of the Constitution guaranteed to all citizens the fundamental right to

A. acquire & hold property
B. dispose of property
C. do business in any part of india
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» D. both (a) & (b)
2.

Article 31 of the Constitution provided that any State acquisition of property must only be

A. upon enactment of a valid law
B. for a public purpose
C. upon payment of compensation
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
3.

The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act 1978, abolished

A. article 19(1)(f)
B. article 31
C. articles 19(1) (f) & article 31
D. article 300a
Answer» C. articles 19(1) (f) & article 31
4.

The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act 1978 inserted ____into a new chapter IV of Part XII of the Constitution

A. article 300a
B. article 370
C. article 300
D. article 31(a)
Answer» A. article 300a
5.

‘Acquisition and requisitioning of property’ was included as a subject in

A. the concurrent list
B. state list
C. central list
D. residue powers of central government
Answer» A. the concurrent list
6.

_________ Amendment was passed shortly after the decision in the Bela Banerjee case

A. twenty-fifth
B. the fourth
C. forty second
D. forty fourth
Answer» B. the fourth
7.

_________ Amendment was passed to oust judicial review of the adequacy of compensation.

A. the first
B. the fourth
C. the twenty fourth
D. the forty fourth
Answer» B. the fourth
8.

Today, Right to property in India is

A. fundamental right
B. constitutional right
C. legal right
D. human right
Answer» C. legal right
9.

After the formation of Maharashtra State uniform land revenue code called as ________ was formulated

A. maharashtra land revenue code 1966
B. bombay land revenue code,
C. berar land revenue code,
D. central provinces land revenue code
Answer» A. maharashtra land revenue code 1966
10.

At divisional level, _____________ is the controlling authority in all the matters connected with land revenue administration in the division.

A. commissioner holding the rank of secretary
B. minister of agriculture
C. district collector
D. additional collector
Answer» A. commissioner holding the rank of secretary
11.

_____________heads the district has to ensure prompt action in revenue matter like correct computation of revenue, declaration of land revenue rates, review of agricultural conditions, formation of urban, rural and survey areas.

A. tehsildar
B. district collector
C. commissioner
D. assistant commissioner
Answer» B. district collector
12.

Under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, working of the taluka is supervised by

A. tahsildar
B. naib tahsildar
C. tahsildar assisted by naib tahsildar
D. additional collector
Answer» C. tahsildar assisted by naib tahsildar
13.

Under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, villages are under the charge of

A. sarpanch
B. talathi
C. gram sevak
D. kotwal
Answer» B. talathi
14.

At District level there is ________ in each district who maintains the record at district level under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code.

A. collector
B. district inspector of land records
C. tehsildar
D. city survey officer
Answer» B. district inspector of land records
15.

In the cities there are________ who conduct measurement of land for correct boundaries to identify each parcel of land.

A. city survey officers
B. law enforcement officers
C. municipality officers
D. land acquisition officers
Answer» A. city survey officers
16.

At district level, _____is the ex-officio District Registrar

A. collector
B. additional collector
C. tehsildar
D. registration officer
Answer» A. collector
17.

At Taluka level, _____ maintain copies of every document registered with them.

A. tehsildar
B. sub-registrar
C. naib tehsildar
D. additional tehsildar
Answer» B. sub-registrar
18.

_______ is the revenue officer at grass root level who keeps the record of the land holdings and revenue in each village Under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966.

A. sarpanch
B. talathi
C. gram sevak
D. inspector
Answer» B. talathi
19.

_______ established under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code hear appeals against the
orders of Revenue Officers relating to land revenue matter, tenancy, abolition of inams,
vatans and related matters.

A. divisional court
B. high court
C. maharashtra revenue tribunal
D. maharashtra administrative tribunal
Answer» C. maharashtra revenue tribunal
20.

Who among the following is NOT a revenue officer?

A. collector
B. tahsildar
C. circle officer & inspector
D. inspector general of police
Answer» D. inspector general of police
21.

Which is notified as a Revenue Year?

A. 1st april to 31st march
B. 1st january to 31st december
C. 1st august to 31st july
D. none of the above
Answer» C. 1st august to 31st july
22.

Who is/are revenue officers in Division?

A. commissioner
B. additional commissioner
C. assistant commissioner
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
23.

Appointments of revenue officers are made under which section(s) of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code?

A. section 6
B. section 7
C. section 8
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
24.

Which is NOT correct about the Superintendent of Land Records?

A. he is a survey officer
B. he is a revenue officer
C. he is advisor to collector on land records
D. he advises on maintenance of records of rights
Answer» B. he is a revenue officer
25.

Who is the village accountant Maharashtra Land Revenue Code?

A. talathi
B. gram sewak
C. kulkarni
D. circle inspector
Answer» A. talathi
26.

Immediate superior of Talathi is

A. gram sewak
B. zilla parishad president
C. tahsildar
D. circle inspector
Answer» D. circle inspector
27.

Which sections of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code deal with provisions relating to encroachment on Government Land?

A. sections 50-53
B. sections 40-42
C. sections 36-40
D. sections 19-22
Answer» A. sections 50-53
28.

In _______ the High Court held that under section 50 of Maharashtra Land Revenue
Code, the Collector is empowered to abate or remove any encroachment made on any land
/ property vested in State Government.

A. state of bombay v. fakir umar
B. babamiya ahmed shah v. tahsildar, beed
C. yashwant kulkarni v. state of maharashtra
D. popat moti rathod v. state of maharashtra
Answer» B. babamiya ahmed shah v. tahsildar, beed
29.

The Supreme Court in ______ held that illegal encroachment on Gram Panchayat land cannot be regularized.

A. popat moti rathod v. state of maharashtra
B. jagpal singh & others v. state of punjab & others
C. state of bombay v. fakir umar
D. hinchal tiwari v. kamal devi
Answer» B. jagpal singh & others v. state of punjab & others
30.

When a dispute arises concerning the boundaries of a village, a survey number or subdivision of a survey number _____ decides the disputes by holding formal inquiry

A. the collector
B. the tahsildar
C. the talathi
D. the survey officer
Answer» A. the collector
31.

Maharashtra Rent Control Act, 1999 extends to

A. the whole of the state of maharashtra
B. the whole of the state of maharashtra except mumbai
C. the whole of the state of maharashtra except mumbai, pune & nagpur
D. none of these
Answer» A. the whole of the state of maharashtra
32.

Under Maharashtra Rent Control Act the court can fix the standard rent & permitted increases

A. upon the application made to it for that purpose
B. in any pending suit or proceedings
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of these
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
33.

As per section 11 Maharashtra Rent Control Act, a landlord shall be entitled to make an increase of ______ in the rent of the premises let for any purpose

A. 4 percent per annum
B. 4 percent per month
C. 10 percent per annum
D. 10 percent after every two years
Answer» A. 4 percent per annum
34.

Which section of Maharashtra Rent Control Act imposes upon a landlord a duty to keep the premises in good and tenantable repair?

A. section 10
B. section 12
C. section 13
D. section 14
Answer» D. section 14
35.

When eviction of tenant is sought on any of the grounds mentioned under section 16(1) of Maharashtra Rent Control Act,

A. advanced notice is required
B. no notice is required
C. notice of 30 days is required
D. none of these
Answer» B. no notice is required
36.

A tenant, before any repairs/ alterations of the structure must issue notice and obtain written permission from the landlord

A. true
B. partially true
C. false
D. depends on case
Answer» A. true
37.

Who is entitled to recover from his tenant the possession of any premises owned by him
on the ground that such premises are bona fide required by him for occupation by himself
or by any member of his family

A. members of the armed forces of the union
B. scientists
C. successor-in-interest of both (a) & (b)
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
38.

Under section 28 of Maharashtra Rent Control Act landlord is __________ the premises let or given on license

A. entitled to inspect
B. not entitled to inspect
C. entitled to inspect after giving prior notice to the tenant
D. entitled to inspect any time
Answer» C. entitled to inspect after giving prior notice to the tenant
39.

Can a landlord convert into commercial the premises meant to be residential?

A. yes.
B. no, it is prohibited
C. yes, anytime
D. none of these
Answer» B. no, it is prohibited
40.

Under section 31 of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act giving receipt for any amount received from tenant is

A. compulsory on every landlord
B. optional on the landlord
C. compulsory on some landlord
D. compulsory if the tenant demands otherwise not
Answer» A. compulsory on every landlord
41.

Under Maharashtra Rent Control Act, who is empowered to appoint Competent Authority?

A. the state government
B. the central government
C. both the state & the central government
D. either of them
Answer» C. both the state & the central government
42.

The Competent Authority constituted under Maharashtra Rent Control Act

A. is a court
B. is not a court
C. is adr mechanism
D. is not a court exercising powers under the limitation act, 1963.
Answer» D. is not a court exercising powers under the limitation act, 1963.
43.

The Competent Authority constituted under Maharashtra Rent Control Act

A. is deemed to be public servant within the meaning of sec. 21 of ipc
B. is not deemed to be a public servant
C. is deemed to be public servant in certain cases
D. is not deemed to be a public servant in certain cases
Answer» A. is deemed to be public servant within the meaning of sec. 21 of ipc
44.

All the proceedings before the Competent Authority constituted under Maharashtra Rent Control Act shall be deemed to be judicial proceedings for the purpose of

A. section 193 of ipc
B. section 228 of ipc
C. both (a) & (b)
D. section 2 of the ipc
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
45.

Determination of the Standard Rent would depend upon

A. the provisions of the maharashtra rent control act
B. the circumstances off each case
C. fair and / or just character of the amount involved
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
46.

Which section of Maharashtra Rent Control Act deals with Permitted Increase in Rent

A. section 10
B. section 11
C. section 20
D. section 24
Answer» B. section 11
47.

According to Section 16 of Maharashtra Rent Control Act, landlord may recover the possession of any premises on the ground of

A. damage to the property
B. erection of permanent structure
C. subletting
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
48.

No appeal lies against the order of Competent Authority established under Maharashtra Rent Control Act

A. correct statement
B. false statement
C. correct statement nonetheless a revision application can be filed against the same
D. partly true
Answer» C. correct statement nonetheless a revision application can be filed against the same
49.

Competent Authority established under Maharashtra Rent Control Act is empowered to

A. evict the tenant
B. pass an order for compensation made u/s 22, 23 & 24
C. only one of (a) or (b)
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» D. both (a) & (b)
50.

The term ‘landlord’ means

A. the owner / freeholder
B. head landlord
C. agent receiving rent
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
51.

The term ‘landlord’ also means ‘Agent receiving rent’ was observed in

A. oakley v. wilson
B. barker v. levinson
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
52.

‘Paying guest’ implies

A. a person is given a part of the premises on license
B. the person is not the member of the family of the licensor
C. the licensor also resides in the premises
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
53.

Landlord is entitled to critically examine his premises was held in

A. empeegee portfolio services pvt. ltd. v. sharada navinchandra shah
B. kamalabai laxman mutraj v. bherumal verimal haran
C. in both (a) & (b)
D. in none of the above
Answer» C. in both (a) & (b)
54.

Maharashtra Rent Control Act puts Bar of Jurisdiction on Civil Court in Section 47

A. true statement
B. partially true
C. false statement
D. in some cases
Answer» A. true statement
55.

Landlord can temporary increase rent not exceeding 25 % of the Standard Rent

A. yes always
B. no
C. only when landlord has carried out structural repairs
D. occasionally
Answer» C. only when landlord has carried out structural repairs
56.

The main purpose of provision of fixing Standard Rent is

A. to bring uniformity in rents
B. for deciding local tax rates
C. to provide remedy to weaker sections of tenants against exploitation by the landlord
D. to help state government in revenue collection
Answer» C. to provide remedy to weaker sections of tenants against exploitation by the landlord
57.

A party aggrieved by the order passed by the Tahsildar under section 140 of the MLR Code

A. can file an appeal u/s 257 of the code
B. can file a civil suit
C. both (a) & (b)
D. no appeal lies
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
58.

The powers of review under section 258(2) of MLR Code are

A. akin to the powers of review under civil procedure code
B. can be invoked only if the circumstances mentioned therein are satisfied
C. both (a) & (b)
D. very wide
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
59.

Tahsildar while executing powers under the provisions of MLR Code

A. does not have power to review
B. does not have jurisdiction to review
C. can review only with prior permission from the superior authorities/ officers
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
60.

According to Section 262 of the MLR Code ____________ has the power to fix & levy assessment for land revenue

A. the collector
B. the tahsildar
C. civil judge
D. all the above
Answer» A. the collector
61.

As per Section 274 of MLR Code, an appeal lies to the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal against any decision or order passed

A. the collector
B. assistants of the collector
C. other subordinates exercising powers of the collector
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
62.

The headquarter of the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal is in

A. brihan mumbai
B. pune
C. nagpur
D. aurangabad
Answer» A. brihan mumbai
63.

Who is the chief officer entrusted with local revenue administration at Taluka level?

A. naib tahsildar
B. tahsildar
C. additional tahsildar
D. circle inspector
Answer» B. tahsildar
64.

What are the N. A. purposes ?

A. erecting any building which is not a ‘farm building’
B. industrial purpose
C. commercial purpose
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
65.

Under section 8 of the MLR Code, __________ has power to appoint survey officers for fixing of boundary and boundary marks

A. the collector
B. the state government
C. the central government
D. the high court
Answer» B. the state government
66.

The first piece of legislation in India in respect of acquisition of property was

A. the bengal regulation 1 of 1824
B. act xxviii of 1839
C. act xvii of 1850
D. madras act xx of 1825
Answer» A. the bengal regulation 1 of 1824
67.

Acquiring land without payment of compensation would have been arbitrary, violating

A. article 14
B. article 15
C. article 19
D. article 21
Answer» A. article 14
68.

The SC in __________ held that The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 provides for the assessment and payment of compensation

A. ali hassan v. lt. governor
B. ram jiyaman v. state of uttar pradesh
C. waman rao v. union of india
D. somawati v. state of punjab
Answer» B. ram jiyaman v. state of uttar pradesh
69.

Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is a

A. central act
B. state act
C. both central & state act
D. neither central nor state act
Answer» A. central act
70.

Who can enact law relating to acquisition of property?

A. union government
B. state government
C. both union & state government
D. neither union nor state government
Answer» C. both union & state government
71.

Land Acquisition Act, 1894 was replaced by the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act in

A. 2012
B. 2013
C. 2014
D. 2015
Answer» B. 2013
72.

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the process of acquisition begins with a preliminary notification on signaling the need to acquire the land

A. notification is issued in the official gazette only
B. notification is issued in two daily newspapers circulated in the concerned locality
C. notification is issued both in official gazette as well as in two daily newspapers circulated in the concerned locality of which at least one shall be in the regional language.
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» C. notification is issued both in official gazette as well as in two daily newspapers circulated in the concerned locality of which at least one shall be in the regional language.
73.

The notification puts forward

A. the intention of the government to acquire land
B. entitles the government officials to investigate and ascertain whether the land is suitable for the purposes
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of these
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
74.

An award of a collector is an offer of compensation made on behalf of the government.

A. claimant may not accept the award or accept it with protest
B. person not accepting the award or accepting with protest has a right make an application to the collector to refer the matter to the civil court for determination of market value of the land acquired
C. both (a) & (b) are correct statements
D. only (b) is correct statement
Answer» C. both (a) & (b) are correct statements
75.

Provision of Housing units in case of Displacement include

A. if a house is lost in rural areas, a constructed house shall be provided as per the indira awas yojana specifications. if any affected family in rural areas so prefers, the equivalent cost of the house may be offered in lieu of the constructed house.
B. if a house is lost in urban areas, not less than 50 sq mts in plint area a constructed house shall be given. if any such family in urban areas opts not take the house offered, may get one lakh fifty thousand rupees as a one-time financial assistance.
C. both (a) & (b) are correct statement
D. both (a) & (b) are partially correct statement
Answer» C. both (a) & (b) are correct statement
76.

When can the Collector take Possession of the Land under Acquisition process u/s 38?

A. after ensuring the full payment of compensation within the period of three months
B. after ensuring rehabilitation and resettlement entitlements are paid or tendered to the entitled persons within a period of six months for the monetary part of rehabilitation and resettlements.
C. after the publication of notification showing the intension to acquire
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» D. both (a) & (b)
77.

Which one is the incorrect Statement- under Land Acquisition Act, 1894

A. the land acquired for public purpose shall be used for the same
B. it is obligatory upon the state to return the land to the original land owner if it is not put to use for what purpose the land is acquired.
C. the land acquired for a company first vests in the state and then is transferred to the company on payment of amount or cost of acquisition
D. if the acquired land is no longer required by the company it should not be offered back to the original owner
Answer» B. it is obligatory upon the state to return the land to the original land owner if it is not put to use for what purpose the land is acquired.
78.

Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 collector has power to acquire the land, in cases of urgency from the date of preliminary notification without following the procedure accorded in the section 5-A of the Act

A. for a period of three years
B. for a period of five years
C. for a period of seven years
D. for a period of ten years
Answer» A. for a period of three years
79.

Salus Populi est Supreme lex means

A. supreme court laws are better
B. people should pay great respect to welfare law
C. regard for the public welfare is the highest law
D. supreme law should be popular
Answer» C. regard for the public welfare is the highest law
80.

Necessities Public a major est quam Privata means

A. public necessity is greater than private necessity.
B. necessity is basis of law
C. law should be based on necessity
D. majority should be consulted to make good law
Answer» A. public necessity is greater than private necessity.
81.

In Kesvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala the court by 7:6 majority held that

A. parliament can amend any provisions of the constitution under its constituent power (article 368)
B. it can ament fundamental rights also
C. the parliament power to amend does not include the power to alter the basic structure or frame work of the constitution
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
82.

Can a member of owner’s family become a tenant?

A. yes.
B. no.
C. through agreement only
D. depends on case
Answer» B. no.
83.

Tenancy of any land stands terminated when tenant

A. fails to pay the rent for any revenue year before the 31st day of the may
B. has done any destructive or permanently injurious act to the land
C. has failed to cultivate it personally
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
84.

Every appeal or application for revision under Tenancy Act shall be filed within a period of

A. 60 days
B. 90 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
Answer» A. 60 days
85.

At present, which tenancy laws are in operation in Maharashtra?

A. maharashtra tenancy & agricultural lands act (vidarbha region)
B. hyderabad tenancy & agricultural lands act
C. maharashtra tenancy & agricultural lands act
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
86.

Surrender of Tenancy Right by the Tenant

A. must be in writing
B. must be verified before the mamlatdar
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of these
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
87.

Which is incorrect about the surrender of tenancy

A. it may not be voluntary
B. tenant understands the consequences of surrender
C. it must be writing
D. must be before mamlatdar
Answer» A. it may not be voluntary
88.

What is the duties of Mamlatdar?

A. to decide whether a person is an agriculturist
B. to decide whether a person is / was at any time is past a tenant
C. to determine the rates of the rent
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
89.

Appeal against an order of the Agricultural Land Tribunal lie to

A. the collector
B. district civil judge
C. high court
D. divisional commissioner
Answer» A. the collector
90.

Revision application against the order passed by the collector in appeal lies to

A. maharashtra revenue tribunal
B. high court
C. supreme court
D. maharashtra revenue tribunal only on specified ground
Answer» D. maharashtra revenue tribunal only on specified ground
91.

What is the exclusive jurisdiction to try the matters arising out of Tenancy?

A. agricultural land tribunal
B. mamlatdar
C. collector
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
92.

Landlord’s right to terminate tenancy for cultivation includes

A. the tenant is not a permanent tenant
B. the land is required for bona fide personal cultivation & for non-agriculture purpose
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» C. both (a) & (b)
93.

Maharashtra Rent Control Act applies to premises let for the purposes of residence, education, business, trade or storage in the areas specified in

A. schedule i
B. schedule ii
C. schedule iii
D. only schedule i & schedule ii
Answer» D. only schedule i & schedule ii
94.

9th schedule along with Article 31B was added in 1951

A. through the first amendment in indian constitution
B. through the second amendment in indian constitution
C. through the third amendment in indian constitution
D. through the fourth amendment in indian constitution
Answer» A. through the first amendment in indian constitution
95.

What document includes in the term “Instrument” as per the Maharashtra Stamp Act, 1958?

A. . Letter of Credit
B. . Promissory Notes
C. . Bill of Exchange
D. . None of the above
Answer» C. . Bill of Exchange
96.

For how long is the stamp valid from the date it is paid?

A. . Three Months
B. . Four months
C. . Six months
D. . One year
Answer» B. . Four months
97.

As per the MRTP Act, 1966 What is included in the term “Development”?

A. . Building
B. . Mining
C. . Erection
D. . All of the above
Answer» D. . All of the above
98.

Which section of the MRTP Act, 1966 covers the concept of Acquisition of Land?

A. . Section 115
B. . Section 125
C. . Section 135
D. . Section 145
Answer» B. . Section 125
99.

As per the MHADA Act, 1976 what includes in the term “Amenity”?

A. . Supply of water
B. . Market & Conservancy
C. . Drainage & Sewage
D. . All of the above
Answer» D. . All of the above
100.

Who can collect cess against property as per the MHADA Act 1976?

A. . The Administrative Office
B. . The Gram Panchayat
C. . The Municipal Corporation
D. . None of the above
Answer» C. . The Municipal Corporation
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