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210+ Waste Water Treatment Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Civil Engineering .

51.

Control of river pollution can be done by providing the extra ___________ during dry season.

A. Water
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbondioxide
D. Oxygen
Answer» D. Oxygen
52.

Determination of flow increase is used for the monitoring of ___________

A. sea pollution
B. River pollution
C. Lake pollution
D. Tank pollution
Answer» B. River pollution
53.

which of the following does not include in the monitoring of river pollution?

A. Assessing the immediate water quality
B. Development activities in the region
C. Determination of flow increase
D. Colour of the water
Answer» D. Colour of the water
54.

Which one of the following is the basic indicator of river health?

A. BOD
B. COD
C. DO
D. ThOD
Answer» C. DO
55.

What is the minimum amount of DO required for the life survival of aquatic animals?

A. 10 mg/l
B. 5 mg/l
C. 2 mg/l
D. 1 mg/l
Answer» C. 2 mg/l
56.

In the concept of self purification of natural streams, complete the following phrase. Solution to pollution is _________

A. Control
B. Dilution
C. Reuse
D. Recycle
Answer» B. Dilution
57.

_________ is accomplished by the replenishment of oxygen lost to bacterial degradation of organic waste.

A. Gas transfer
B. Dilution
C. Filtration
D. Re-suspension
Answer» A. Gas transfer
58.

On which of the following does the self purification process does not depend?

A. Volume
B. Flow rate
C. Temperature
D. Aquatic species
Answer» D. Aquatic species
59.

In a flowing stream, the breakdown of degradable wastes by bacteria ________ dissolved oxygen.

A. Increases
B. Depletes
C. Maintains
D. Improves
Answer» B. Depletes
60.

What is the objective of water quality management?

A. Control the discharge of pollutants
B. Pollutants are discharged into flowing streams
C. Selective pollutants are released
D. Only highly toxic pollutants are released
Answer» A. Control the discharge of pollutants
61.

The impact of pollution depends upon nature of the pollutants and the ___________

A. Toxic contaminants
B. Season
C. Contaminants
D. Characteristics of river
Answer» D. Characteristics of river
62.

Which of the following sewerage systems carry domestic and industrial wastewater?

A. sanitary sewers
B. storm sewers
C. combined sewers
D. storm and combined sewers
Answer» A. sanitary sewers
63.

Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?

A. Enterobacter
B. Alcaligenes
C. Pseudomonas
D. Methanosarcina
Answer» D. Methanosarcina
64.

In which of the following treatment involve oxidation of organic constituents of the wastewater?

A. Primary treatment
B. Secondary treatment
C. Advanced treatment
D. Final treatment
Answer» B. Secondary treatment
65.

The upper region of the trickling filter is favorable for the growth of _____________

A. fungi
B. protozoa
C. algae
D. bacteria
Answer» C. algae
66.

Activated sludge usually employs an aeration period of ________________

A. 1 hour
B. 24 hours
C. 10-15 hours
D. 4-8 hours
Answer» D. 4-8 hours
67.

Trickling filter is used in which of the following wastewater treatment processes?

A. Primary treatment
B. Secondary treatment
C. Advanced treatment
D. Final treatment
Answer» B. Secondary treatment
68.

Belt filter presses are used in which of the following process?

A. Thickening
B. Stabilization
C. Dewatering
D. Disposal
Answer» C. Dewatering
69.

Which of the following gases are produced in large amounts during sludge digestion?

A. methane
B. carbon-dioxide
C. hydrogen
D. nitrogen
Answer» A. methane
70.

Biological process is used to remove _______

A. Settleable solids
B. Volatile solids
C. Dissolved solids
D. Colloids
Answer» C. Dissolved solids
71.

What is the wastewater called as after physical and biological removal of solids?

A. Primary effluent
B. Primary treated water
C. Secondary treated water
D. Secondary treated wastewater
Answer» D. Secondary treated wastewater
72.

What is the monthly concentration of solids produced by secondary sewage effluent?

A. 20 mg/l
B. 30 mg/l
C. 40 mg/l
D. 35 mg/l
Answer» B. 30 mg/l
73.

What is the expected BOD removal after both primary and secondary treatment?

A. 90%
B. 85%
C. 80%
D. 75%
Answer» B. 85%
74.

What is the percentage removal of BOD by stabilization ponds?

A. 20%
B. 45%
C. 65%
D. 95%
Answer» C. 65%
75.

Which of these is not an advantage of a trickling filter?

A. Temperature
B. Construction cost
C. Oxygen delivery
D. Electric systems
Answer» A. Temperature
76.

The secondary clarifiers are ________

A. Circular
B. Rectangular
C. Square
D. Triangular
Answer» A. Circular
77.

Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter material in the treatment of water?

A. Sand
B. Anthracite
C. Crushed rock
D. Garnet sand
Answer» C. Crushed rock
78.

Which of the following is correct regarding the cheapest filter material used in water treatment?

A. Sand>Anthracite>Garnet sand
B. SandGarnet sand
C. Sand
D. Sand=Anthracite>Garnet sand
Answer» A. Sand>Anthracite>Garnet sand
79.

The uniformity characteristics of sand expressed in terms of __________

A. Effective size
B. Effective size and uniformity coefficient
C. Uniformity coefficient
D. Mean velocity
Answer» B. Effective size and uniformity coefficient
80.

____ represents the size of sand particle such that 10% of particles are finer than this size.

A. D0.1
B. D1
C. D10
D. D100
Answer» C. D10
81.

What is CU in the expression CU= D60/D10 where D60 and D10 are the sizes of particle such that 60% and 10% of the particles are finer than these sizes respectively?

A. Coefficient of compaction
B. Coefficient of consolidation
C. Uniformity coefficient
D. Effective size
Answer» C. Uniformity coefficient
82.

The effective size of sand of the slow sand filter is __________

A. 0.1-0.2mm
B. 0.2-0.3mm
C. 0.4-0.7mm
D. 1-2mm
Answer» B. 0.2-0.3mm
83.

What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A. 2
B. 2.6
C. 3.1
D. 3.5
Answer» B. 2.6
84.

The value of uniformity coefficient for uniformly graded sand is ______

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
Answer» B. 1
85.

The value of specific gravity for Garnet sand is ____

A. 2.1
B. 3.6
C. 4.2
D. 5.1
Answer» C. 4.2
86.

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Ignition loss of filter should not exceed 3%
B. Wearing loss of filter sand should not exceed 5%
C. The range of CU for the slow sand filter is 3-5
D. The range of CU for the rapid sand filter is 3-5
Answer» C. The range of CU for the slow sand filter is 3-5
87.

In which process of water softening, ion exchange phenomenon takes place?

A. Lime soda process
B. Zeolite process
C. Boiling
D. Demineralization process
Answer» B. Zeolite process
88.

In which process of water softening, the chemicals are added to remove hardness from water?

A. Lime soda process
B. Zeolite process
C. Boiling
D. Demineralization process
Answer» A. Lime soda process
89.

Zeolites are complex compound of ____________

A. Aluminium and lime
B. Silica and soda
C. Aluminium, silica and soda
D. Lime and soda
Answer» C. Aluminium, silica and soda
90.

The color of the artificial zeolite permutit is ____________

A. Grey
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. White
Answer» D. White
91.

Natural zeolite is mainly processed from ____________

A. White sand
B. Green sand
C. Grey sand
D. Red sand
Answer» B. Green sand
92.

The color of the natural zeolite is ____________

A. Green
B. Grey
C. Black
D. Blue
Answer» A. Green
93.

The chemical formula of Permutit is ____________

A. SiOAl2O3Na2O
B. SiO2Al2O3Na2O
C. SiO2Al2O3NaO
D. SiO3Al2O3Na2O
Answer» B. SiO2Al2O3Na2O
94.

Permutit has an exchange value of ________ grams of hardness per m3 of zeolite.

A. 10,000
B. 20,000-30,000
C. 35,000-40,000
D. 40,000-50,000
Answer» C. 35,000-40,000
95.

The thickness of the layers of filter sand of zeolite softener is ____________

A. 20cm
B. 30cm
C. 40cm
D. 100cm
Answer» D. 100cm
96.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A. No sludge is formed
B. The process is almost automatic
C. Suspended impurities get deposited around the zeolite particles
D. Zero hardness can be occurred
Answer» C. Suspended impurities get deposited around the zeolite particles
97.

Water is mainly used in boilers for the generation of ________________

A. Power
B. Electricity
C. Steam
D. Current
Answer» C. Steam
98.

Which of the following should not be a composition of boiler-feed water?

A. Hardness should be below 0.2ppm
B. Its caustic alkalinity should lie between 0.15 to 0.45 ppm
C. Its soda alkalinity should be 0.45-1 ppm
D. Its caustic alkalinity should be 1.5-2 ppm
Answer» D. Its caustic alkalinity should be 1.5-2 ppm
99.

Which of the following is not a result of the excess of impurity in boiler-feed?

A. Scale and sludge formation
B. Decomposition
C. Corrosion, priming and foaming
D. Caustic embrittlement
Answer» B. Decomposition
100.

If the precipitate formed is soft, loose and slimy, these are __________ and if the precipitate is hard and adhering on the inner wall, it is called _____________

A. Sludges, scale
B. Scale, sludges
C. Sludges, rodent
D. Scale, rodent
Answer» A. Sludges, scale

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