AM

Aarav Menon

1 year ago

Can parties by agreement confer jurisdiction on a court that inherently lacks it, as per the Civil Procedure Code?

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6 Comments

Discussion

KC

Kasturba Chokshi
1 year ago

No, parties cannot by mere agreement confer jurisdiction on a court that inherently lacks it according to the CPC.
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AM

Aarav Menon
1 year ago

Thank you for the clarification!
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AP

Arjun Patel
1 year ago

Is there any exceptional scenario where such an agreement may hold some value?
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RKR

Rashid Kumar Raj
1 year ago

Interesting point, I always thought agreements could override jurisdictional issues.
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ALR

Aditya Lal Rastogi
1 year ago

This was really helpful, especially for someone starting out with CPC study.
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TN

Taahid Natt
1 year ago

Thank you for this insight, it's crucial for understanding procedural law.
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OB

Obaid Bir
1 year ago

That was a fine distinction, much appreciated!
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