Can parties by agreement confer jurisdiction on a court that inherently lacks it, as per the Civil Procedure Code?

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No, parties cannot by mere agreement confer jurisdiction on a court that inherently lacks it according to the CPC.

Thank you for the clarification!

Is there any exceptional scenario where such an agreement may hold some value?

RKR

Interesting point, I always thought agreements could override jurisdictional issues.

ALR

This was really helpful, especially for someone starting out with CPC study.

Thank you for this insight, it's crucial for understanding procedural law.

That was a fine distinction, much appreciated!

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