320+ Information Retrival Techniques Solved MCQs

1.

Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A. place the user in control
B. reduce the user’s memory load
C. make the interface consistent
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: these golden rules actually form the basis for a set of user interface design principles that guide this important software design activity.
2.

Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A. provide for flexible interaction
B. allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
C. show technical internals from the casual user
D. design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Answer» C. show technical internals from the casual user
Explanation: the user interface should move the user into the virtual world of the application.
3.

Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A. user, task, and environment analysis and modeling
B. interface design
C. knowledgeable, frequent users
D. interface validation
Answer» C. knowledgeable, frequent users
Explanation: these are the end user for whom the product is being built.
4.

When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on                      can be significant.

A. short-term memory
B. shortcuts
C. objects that appear on the screen
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» A. short-term memory
Explanation: the interface should be designed to reduce the requirement to remember past actions and results.
5.

Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?

A. the design of interfaces between software components
B. the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information
C. the design of the interface between two computers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» C. the design of the interface between two computers
Explanation: none
6.

A software might allow a user to interact via

A. keyboard commands
B. mouse movement
C. voice recognition commands
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: all the mentioned input mediums are available today.
7.

What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A. design model
B. user’s model
C. mental image
D. system image
Answer» B. user’s model
Explanation: to build an effective user interface, all design should begin with an understanding of the intended users, including their profiles of their age, physical abilities, education, etc.
8.

What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A. mental image
B. interface design
C. system image
D. interface validation
Answer» C. system image
Explanation: when the system image and the system perception are coincident, users generally feel comfortable with the software and use it effectively.
9.

Which of the following is used to access the database server at the time of executing the program and get the data from the server accordingly?

A. embedded sql
B. dynamic sql
C. sql declarations
D. sql data analysis
Answer» B. dynamic sql
Explanation: embedded sql, the sql statements are identified at compile time using a preprocessor. the preprocessor submits the sql statements to the database system for
10.

Which of the following header must be included in java program to establish database connectivity using JDBC ?

A. import java.sql.*;
B. import java.sql.odbc.jdbc.*;
C. import java.jdbc.*;
D. import java.sql.jdbc.*;
Answer» A. import java.sql.*;
Explanation: the java program must import java.sql.*, which contains the interface definitions for the functionality provided by jdbc.
11.

Which of the following invokes functions in sql?

A. prepared statements
B. connection statement
C. callable statements
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» C. callable statements
Explanation: jdbc provides a callable statement interface that allows invocation of sql stored procedures and functions.
12.

Which of the following function is used to find the column count of the particular resultset?

A. getmetadata()
B. metadata()
C. getcolumn()
D. get count()
Answer» A. getmetadata()
Explanation: the interface resultset
13.

Which of the following is a following statement is a prepared statements?

A. insert into department values(?,?,?)
B. insert into department values(x,x,x)
C. sqlsetconnectoption(conn, sql autocommit, 0)
D. sqltransact(conn, sql rollback)
Answer» A. insert into department values(?,?,?)
Explanation: ? is used as a placeholder whose value can be provided later.
14.

Which of the following is used as the embedded SQL in COBOL?

A. exec sql <embedded sql statement >;
B. exec sql <embedded sql statement > end-exec
C. exec sql <embedded sql statement >
D. exec sql <embedded sql statement > end exec;
Answer» B. exec sql <embedded sql statement > end-exec
Explanation: exec sql <embedded sql statement >; is normally in c.
15.

Which of the following is used to distinguish the variables in SQL from the host language variables?

A. .
B.
C. :
D. ,
Answer» B. –
16.

Which of the following is used to access large objects from a database ?

A. setblob()
B. getblob()
C. getclob()
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
17.

Which of the following is not a source used in Mid Infrared Spectrophotometer?

A. nernst glower
B. high pressure mercury arc lamp
C. globar
D. nichrome wire
Answer» B. high pressure mercury arc lamp
Explanation: high pressure mercury arc lamp is used as the source for far ir spectrophotometer. rest of the options are used as a source in mid infrared spectrophotometer.
18.

Which of the following is the wave number of near infrared spectrometer?

A. 4000 – 200 cm-1
B. 200 – 10 cm-1
C. 12500 – 4000 cm-1
D. 50 – 1000 cm-1
Answer» C. 12500 – 4000 cm-1
Explanation: the wave number of near infrared spectrometer ranges between 12500 – 4000. wavenumber is the reciprocal of wavelength.
19.

Which of the following options are correct in terms of wavelength for the different types of IR spectrometer?

A. near ir: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
B. mid ir: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
C. far ir: 2.5 – 50 mm
D. mid ir: 50 – 100 mm
Answer» A. near ir: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
Explanation: wavelength of near ir is 0.8 –
20.

Which of the following is not a composition of Nernst glower or Nernst filament?

A. oxides of zirconium
B. oxides of barium
C. oxides of yitrium
D. oxides of thorium
Answer» B. oxides of barium
Explanation: oxides of barium is not present in nernst glower. they are constructed by fusing oxides of zirconium, yitrium and thorium.
21.

What is the composition of Globar rod which is used as a source in Mid IR spectroscopy?

A. silicon carbide
B. silver chloride
C. silicon dioxide
D. silver carbide
Answer» A. silicon carbide
Explanation: globar is a silicon carbide rod. it is 5mm in diameter and 50mm long.
22.

Bolometer, a type of detector, is also known as                        

A. resistance temperature detector (rtd)
B. thermistor
C. thermocouple
D. golay cell
Answer» B. thermistor
Explanation: bolometers are also known as thermistors. it is a type of resistance thermometer constructed of metals such as platinum or nickel.
23.

Which of the following is not used as pyroelectric material used in pyroelectric transducers in Infrared spectroscopy?

A. triglycine sulphate
B. deutrated triglycine sulphate
C. some polymers
D. tetraglycine sulphate
Answer» D. tetraglycine sulphate
Explanation: pyroelectric materials are deutrated triglycine sulphate, triglycine sulphate and some polymers. they give rise to potential when subjected to a heating or cooling effect.
24.

Which of the following is the principle of Golay cell which is used as a detector in IR spectroscopy?

A. expansion of gas upon heating
B. increase in resistance due to an increase in temperature and vice versa
C. temperature difference gives rise to a potential difference in the material
D. decrease in resistance due to an increase in temperature
Answer» A. expansion of gas upon heating
Explanation: it is also known as pneumatic detector. the gases expand on heating and this in turn leads to the movement of a diaphragm just like in pneumatic sensors.
25.

spread between IR transmitting windows. What is the name of this solid sample treatment technique?

A. pressed pellet
B. mull technique
C. solid films
D. solids run in solution
Answer» B. mull technique
Explanation: the mentioned technique is mull technique. this method is used for qualitative analysis but not quantitative analysis.
26.

Architecture description language represent architectural structures that can be divided into which of the following?

A. static
B. dynamic
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. all of the mentioned
Explanation: architecture description language represent architectural structures that can be divided into static and dynamic.
27.

Which of the following is the essential feature of ADL?

A. the ability to provide structures
B. the ability to declare a component and name its type
C. the ability to support analytical capability
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» B. the ability to declare a component and name its type
Explanation: the ability to declare a component and name its type is the essential feature of adl.
28.

Which of the following is true for pipe?

A. from external perspective pipe has a true state
B. from internal perspective pipe is stateless
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: from external perspective pipe is stateless and from internal perspective pipe has a true state.
29.

Which of the following in context to data in pipeline is correct?

A. the format conversion should be allowed as long as data that exit the pipe are semantically equivalent to the data that enter the pipe
B. the format conversion should be allowed as long as data that exit the pipe are syntactically equivalent to the data that enter the pipe
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. the format conversion should be allowed as long as data that exit the pipe are semantically equivalent to the data that enter the pipe
Explanation: the format conversion should be allowed as long as data that exit the pipe are semantically equivalent to the data that enter the pipe.
30.

Which of the following are considered for connectors?

A. connectors transfers data bidirectionally
B. connectors connect two component of type procedure
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. all of the mentioned
Explanation: all of the mentioned are true with respect to connectors.
31.

The behavior of the system can be communicated by which of the following?

A. by using execution models
B. by using animation techniques
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. all of the mentioned
Explanation: the behavior of the system can be communicated by all the mentioned.
32.

Which of the following is true?

A. a dynamic structure requires a simulator to perform analysis
B. a dynamic structure does not requires a simulator to perform any analysis
C. connectors transfers data unidirectionaly
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. a dynamic structure requires a simulator to perform analysis
Explanation: a dynamic structure requires a simulator to perform analysis.
33.

Which of the following must be estimated for performance analysis?

A. reliability of each component
B. resource usage of the component
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. resource usage of the component
Explanation: resource usage of the component must be estimated for performance analysis.
34.

Which of the following must be estimated for reliability analysis?

A. reliability of each component
B. resource usage of the component
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. reliability of each component
Explanation: reliability of each component must be estimated for reliability analysis.
35.

Which of the following is true?

A. once resource information is provided, portions of the system can be generate automatically
B. once resource information is provided, portions of the system cannot be generate automatically
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. once resource information is provided, portions of the system can be generate automatically
Explanation: once resource information is provided, portions of the system can be generate automatically.
36.

A piece of icon or image on a web page associated with another webpage is called

A. url
B. hyperlink
C. plugin
D. extension
Answer» B. hyperlink
Explanation: urls are locators for resources present on the world wide web. a plugin provides extra functionality to the webpage. an extension provides modification allowance for the core functionality of a webpage. hyperlink is piece of icon or image on a web page associated with another webpage.
37.

Dynamic web page              

A. is same every time whenever it displays
B. generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
C. both is same every time whenever it displays and generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
D. is different always in a predefined order
Answer» B. generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
Explanation: a dynamic web page provides different content every time the user opens it based on some events like new additions or time of the day. languages such as javascript are used to respond to client-side events while languages such as php as used to respond to server-side events.
38.

What is a web browser?

A. a program that can display a web page
B. a program used to view html documents
C. it enables user to access the resources of internet
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: a web browser is an application program that is used to access the world wide web resources, applications and websites. some examples of web browsers are google chrome, internet explorer and safari.
39.

Common gateway interface is used to

A. generate executable files from web content by web server
B. generate web pages
C. stream videos
D. download media files
Answer» A. generate executable files from web content by web server
Explanation: cgi is an interface through servers can run execute console-based executable files on a web server that generates dynamic web pages. a cgi script executes only when a request is made. the script then generates html.
40.

Which one of the following is not used to generate dynamic web pages?

A. php
B. asp.net
C. jsp
D. css
Answer» D. css
Explanation: css alone cannot be used to generate dynamic web pages as it does not provide many event handling functions. it can be used along with javascript to generate dynamic web pages which are visually compelling.
41.

An alternative to JavaScript on windows platform is                

A. vbscript
B. asp.net
C. jsp
D. php
Answer» A. vbscript
Explanation: vbscript is a general-purpose, lightweight and active scripting language which can be used on microsoft visual basic. it was first released in 1996.
42.

What is document object model (DOM)?

A. convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents
B. application programming interface
C. hierarchy of objects in asp.net
D. scripting language
Answer» A. convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents
Explanation: dom is a hierarchical model i.e. a tree used to represent an html or xml document. every node of the tree an object that represents a part of the document.
43.

Most demultiplexers facilitate which type of conversion?

A. decimal-to-hexadecimal
B. single input, multiple outputs
C. ac to dc
D. odd parity to even parity
Answer» B. single input, multiple outputs
Explanation: a demultiplexer sends a single input to multiple outputs, depending on the select lines. demultiplexer converts single input into multiple outputs.
44.

In 1-to-4 demultiplexer, how many select lines are required?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer» A. 2
Explanation: the formula for total no. of outputs is given by 2n, where n is the no. of select lines. therefore, for 1:4 demultiplexer, 2 select lines are required.
45.

In 1-to-4 multiplexer, if C1 = 1 & C2 = 1, then the output will be                          

A. y0
B. y1
C. y2
D. y3
Answer» D. y3
Explanation: it can be calculated from the figure shown below:
46.

How many select lines are required for a 1- to-8 demultiplexer?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer» B. 3
Explanation: the formula for total no. of outputs is given by 2n, where n is the no. of select lines. in this case n = 3 since 23 = 8.
47.

How many AND gates are required for a 1- to-8 multiplexer?

A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 5
Answer» C. 8
Explanation: the number of and gates required will be equal to the number of outputs
48.

Which function is used to return a handle to the database?

A. preparedatabase()
B. showdoccount()
C. executesql()
D. opendatabase()
Answer» A. preparedatabase()
Explanation: preparedatabase() function is used to return a handle to database. it is necessary to first create the database. showdoccount() shows the real work after creating the database. syntax of calling a javascript function is: function preparedatabase(ready, error).
49.

openDatabase() method does not take the argument in                      

A. database name
B. display name
C. database version
D. server name
Answer» D. server name
Explanation: opendatabase() and opendatabasesync() methods takes the name of the database, version of the database, display name, estimated size in bytes of the data that is to be stored in the database. opendtabase() method works on workerutils and window, opendatabasesync() method works on workerutils.
50.

Which feature is not used when SQL features are not being supported?

A. begin
B. end
C. commit
D. rollback
Answer» B. end
Explanation: when sql feature is not supported then we use commit, begin, rollback sql features and are marked as bogus. user agent uses the statements that contain these three words in case of failure of the support of sql features.
51.

transaction() does not take the argument

A. callback
B. success callback
C. error callback
D. database name
Answer» D. database name
Explanation: transction() and readtransaction() are the two methods that take three arguments
52.

Which method is used to verifythe version number?

A. changeversion()
B. readtransaction()
C. transaction()
D. executesql()
Answer» A. changeversion()
Explanation: changeversion() method automatically verify version number and it also changes it like doing a schema update. when
53.

Which object is created for read-only transaction?

A. foo object
B. sqltransactionsync
C. databasesync object
D. sqltransaction
Answer» B. sqltransactionsync
Explanation: for read-only transaction, we create the object sqltransactionsync. if the first argument is null then we throw sqlexception which is error code 0.
54.

insertId attribute returns                          

A. column id
B. row id
C. user’s id
D. database id
Answer» B. row id
Explanation: insertid attribute returns the row id of the row of the inserted sqlresultset object’s sql statement that is inserted into the database. if multiple rows are inserted then the id of the last row will be returned. if there is no row then invalid_access_err exception will be raised.
55.

Which error is invoked when SQLTransactionCallback does not execute?

A. insertiid
B. rows
C. rowsaffected
D. length
Answer» C. rowsaffected
Explanation: rowsaffected attribute returns the
56.

Which of the error is raised when the quantity of data is too much?

A. too_large_err
B. unknown_err
C. timeout_err
D. quota_err
Answer» A. too_large_err
Explanation: when the quantity of the data returned from the database is very large then too_large_err is invoked. to minimize the data we can use sql “limit” i.e. modifier to reduce the size of the resultant set.
57.

What is the required argument to openDatabase?

A. version number
B. database name
C. size of a database
D. text description
Answer» A. version number
Explanation: the required argument to opendatabase is version number. so it is mandatory that you should know the version number before we try to open the database. if we do not pass this argument then an exception is thrown.
58.

Which attribute is used for getting an individual row?

A. results.rows.item(i)
B. insertid
C. rowaffected
D. length
Answer» A. results.rows.item(i)
Explanation: for getting individual row results.rows.item(i) is used, i denotes the index of the row. it will return the object representation of the row. insertid returns row id but in case of multiple rows, it returns the id of the last row.
59.

What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?

A. design model
B. user’s model
C. mental image
D. system image
Answer» A. design model
Explanation: the requirements specification may establish certain constraints that help to define the user of the system, but the interface design is often only incidental to the design model.
60.

Which of the following adds marginal sums to an existing table?

A. par()
B. prop.table()
C. addmargins()
D. quantile()
Answer» B. prop.table()
Explanation: prop.table() computes proportions from a contingency table.
61.

Which of the following lists names of variables in a data.frame?

A. quantile()
B. names()
C. barchart()
D. par()
Answer» A. quantile()
Explanation: names function is used to associate name with the value in the vector.
62.

Which of the following is tool for chi-square distributions?

A. pchisq()
B. chisq()
C. pnorm
D. barchart()
Answer» C. pnorm
Explanation: pnorm() is tool for normal distributions.
63.

Which of the following groups values of a variable into larger bins?

A. cut
B. col.max(x)
C. stem
D. which.max(x)
Answer» A. cut
Explanation: stem() is used to make a stemplot.
64.

Which of the following determine the least- squares regression line?

A. histo()
B. lm
C. barlm()
D. col.max(x)
Answer» B. lm
Explanation: lm calls the lower level functions lm.fit.
65.

Which of the following is tool for checking normality?

A. qqline()
B. qline()
C. anova()
D. lm()
Answer» A. qqline()
Explanation: qqnorm is another tool for checking normality.
66.

Which of the following is lattice command for producing boxplots?

A. plot()
B. bwplot()
C. xyplot()
D. barlm()
Answer» B. bwplot()
Explanation: the function bwplot() makes box-and-whisker plots for numerical variables.
67.

Which of the following compute analysis of variance table for fitted model?

A. ecdf()
B. cum()
C. anova()
D. bwplot()
Answer» C. anova()
Explanation: ecdf() builds empirical cumulative distribution function.
68.

Which of the following is used to find variance of all values?

A. var()
B. sd()
C. mean()
D. anova()
Answer» A. var()
Explanation: sd() is used to calculate standard deviation.
69.

The purpose of fisher.test() is                test for contingency table.

A. chisq
B. fisher
C. prop
D. stem
Answer» B. fisher
Explanation: prop.test() is used to inference for 1 proportion using normal approx.
70.

Which of the following options are correct in terms of wavelength for the different types of IR spectrometer?

A. near ir: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
B. mid ir: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
C. far ir: 2.5 – 50 mm
D. mid ir: 50 – 100 mm
Answer» A. near ir: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
Explanation: wavelength of near ir is 0.8 –
71.

Which of the following is not a technique for preparing solid samples in IR spectroscopy?

A. solids run in solution
B. mull technique
C. solid films
D. thin films
Answer» D. thin films
Explanation: four techniques are generally used to prepare solid samples. they are: solids run in solution, mull technique, solid films and pressed pellet techniques.
72.

Which of the following is not used as pyroelectric material used in pyroelectric transducers in Infrared spectroscopy?

A. triglycine sulphate
B. deutrated triglycine sulphate
C. some polymers
D. tetraglycine sulphate
Answer» D. tetraglycine sulphate
Explanation: pyroelectric materials are deutrated triglycine sulphate, triglycine sulphate and some polymers. they give rise to potential when subjected to a heating or cooling effect.
73.

spectroscopy?

A. expansion of gas upon heating
B. increase in resistance due to an increase in temperature and vice versa
C. temperature difference gives rise to a potential difference in the material
D. decrease in resistance due to an increase in temperature
Answer» A. expansion of gas upon heating
Explanation: it is also known as pneumatic detector. the gases expand on heating and this in turn leads to the movement of a diaphragm just like in pneumatic sensors.
74.

In a solid sample treatment technique, the finely ground solid sample is mixed with mineral oil to make a thick paste which is then spread between IR transmitting windows. What is the name of this solid sample treatment technique?

A. pressed pellet
B. mull technique
C. solid films
D. solids run in solution
Answer» B. mull technique
Explanation: the mentioned technique is mull technique. this method is used for qualitative analysis but not quantitative analysis.
75.

What is the definition of Boolean functions?

A. an arithmetic function with k degrees such that f:y–>yk
B. a special mathematical function with n degrees such that f:yn–>y
C. an algebraic function with n degrees such that f:xn–>x
D. a polynomial function with k degrees such that f:x2–>xn
Answer» B. a special mathematical function with n degrees such that f:yn–>y
Explanation: a boolean function is a special mathematical function with n degrees and where y = {0,1} is the boolean domain with being a non-negative integer. it helps in describing the way in which the boolean output is derived from boolean inputs.
76.

F(X,Y,Z,M) = X`Y`Z`M`. The degree of the function is                  

A. 2
B. 5
C. 4
D. 1
Answer» C. 4
Explanation: this is a function of degree 4 from the set of ordered pairs of boolean variables to the set {0,1}.
77.

A                   value is represented by a

A. numerical logic
B. boolean algebra
C. arithmetic logic
D. boolean number
Answer» C. arithmetic logic
Explanation: the variables that can have two discrete values false(0) and true(1) and the operations of logical significance are dealt with boolean algebra.
78.

Boolean expression.

A. positive
B. recursive
C. negative
D. boolean
Answer» D. boolean
Explanation: a boolean value is given by a boolean expression which is formed by combining boolean variables and logical connectives.
79.

What are the canonical forms of Boolean Expressions?

A. or and xor
B. nor and xnor
C. max and min
D. som and pom
Answer» D. som and pom
Explanation: there are two kinds of canonical forms for a boolean expression-> 1)sum of minterms(som) form and
80.

Which of the following is/are the universal logic gates?

A. or and nor
B. and
C. nand and nor
D. not
Answer» C. nand and nor
Explanation: nand and nor gates are known as the universal logic gates. a universal gate is a gate which can implement any boolean function without the help of 3 basic gate types.
81.

The logic gate that provides high output for same inputs                          

A. not
B. x-nor
C. and
D. xor
Answer» B. x-nor
Explanation: the logic gate which gives high output for the same inputs, otherwise low output is known as x-nor or exclusive nor gate.
82.

The                         of all the variables in direct or complemented from is a maxterm.

A. addition
B. product
C. moduler
D. subtraction
Answer» A. addition
Explanation: the boolean function is expressed as a sum of the 1-minterms and the inverse of function is represented as 0- minterms.
83.

The quantity which has the only magnitude is called                          

A. a scalar quantity
B. a vector quantity
C. a chemical quantity
D. a magnitude quantity
Answer» A. a scalar quantity
Explanation: a quantity which has only magnitude and no direction is called scalar quantity. example: mass
84.

A polar vector is one which?

A. gives the position of an object
B. tells how much and in which direction an object has changed its position
C. represents rotational effect
D. has a starting point of application
Answer» D. has a starting point of application
Explanation: the vector which has a starting point or a point of application is called a polar
85.

Which of the following acts in accordance with right hand screw rule?

A. polar vector
B. axial vector
C. displacement vector
D. position vector
Answer» B. axial vector
Explanation: the vectors which represent rotational effect and act along the axis of rotation in accordance with right hand screw rule are called axial vector. axial vector will have its direction along its axis of rotation depending on its anticlockwise or clockwise rotational effect.
86.

What is the magnitude of a unit vector?

A. it has no magnitude
B. zero
C. constant but not zero
D. unity
Answer» D. unity
Explanation: the magnitude of a unit vector is unity. it just gives the direction of a vector. a unit vector has no units or dimensions.
87.

Which of the following has zero magnitude?

A. fixed vector
B. zero vector
C. modulus of a vector
D. unit vector
Answer» B. zero vector
Explanation: a zero or null vector is a vector that has zero magnitude and an arbitrary direction. the velocity vector of a stationary object is a zero vector.
88.

Flying a bird is an example of                          

A. collinear vector
B. multiplication of vector
C. addition of vector
D. composition of vector
Answer» D. composition of vector
Explanation: when a bird flies, it pushes the air with force in the downward direction with its wings. in accordance with newton’s law of motion, the air exerts equal and opposite
89.

Two forces whose magnitudes are in ratio of 3:5 give a resultant of 35N. If the angle of inclination is 60°, calculate the magnitude of each force.

A. 15n and35n
B. 15n and 25n
C. 10n and 15n
D. 20n and 5n
Answer» B. 15n and 25n
Explanation: p = 3x and q = 5x r = 35n θ = 120°
90.

Walking off a man is an example of

A. resolution of forces
B. addition of vectors
C. subtraction of vectors
D. multiplication of vectors
Answer» A. resolution of forces
Explanation: while walking, a person presses the ground with his feet slightly slanted in the backward direction. the ground exerts upon him an equal and opposite reaction. its horizontal component enables the person to move forward while the vertical component balances this weight.
91.

What is the extraction of the meaning of utterance?

A. syntactic
B. semantic
C. pragmatic
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. semantic
Explanation: semantic analysis is used to extract the meaning from the group of sentences.
92.

What is the process of associating a FOL expression with a phrase?

A. interpretation
B. augmented reality
C. semantic interpretation
D. augmented interpretation
Answer» C. semantic interpretation
Explanation: semantic interpretation is the process of associating a fol expression with a phrase.
93.

What is meant by compositional semantics?

A. determining the meaning
B. logical connectives
C. semantics
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. determining the meaning
Explanation: compositional semantics is the process of determining the meaning of p*q from p, q and *.
94.

What is used to augment a grammar for arithmetic expression with semantics?

A. notation
B. dcg notation
C. constituent
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» B. dcg notation
Explanation: dcg notation is used to augment a grammar for arithmetic expression with semantics and it is used to build a parse tree.
95.

How many verb tenses are there in the English language?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» C. 3
Explanation: there are three types of tenses available in english language are past, present and future.
96.

Which is used to mediate between syntax and semantics?

A. form
B. intermediate form
C. grammer
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» B. intermediate form
Explanation: none.
97.

What is meant by quasi-logical form?

A. sits between syntactic and logical form
B. logical connectives
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. sits between syntactic and logical form
Explanation: it can be translated into a regular first-order logical sentence, so that it sits between syntactic and logical form.
98.

interpretation?

A. logical term
B. complete logical sentence
C. both logical term & complete logical sentence
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. both logical term & complete logical sentence
Explanation: some kind of sentence in the semantic interpretation can’t be logical term nor a complete logical sentence.
99.

What kind of interpretation is done by adding context-dependant information?

A. semantic
B. syntactic
C. pragmatic
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. pragmatic
Explanation: none.
100.

Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?

A. market
B. product
C. technology
D. people
Answer» A. market
Explanation: market is a collection of competitors, stakeholders, users each having different views on the product. so it does not affect the software quality.
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