Female patient with acute abdomen , CBC normal , B-HCG negative , No vaginal bleeding , Mostly is :

Related MCQs

• Female patient with history of endometriosis , menstrual disorders complaining from pain on right iliac fossa , on examination there was tenderness on right iliac fossa with no rebound pain no rigidity , on CBC it was normal , most likely :
• Female came to the ER with Bp 80/60 and pulse 125 with history of acute abdomen , next step is
• Physical exam reveals the uterus to be about 6 wk size. Vaginal bleeding is scanty with no discernible tissue in the cervical os. There are no palpable adnexal masses. The uterus is mildly tender. Ultrasonographic exam does not reveal a gestational sac. Which of the following should be recommended?
• A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:
• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• A 4-year-old girl is noted to have breast enlargement and vaginal bleeding. On physical examination, she is noted to have a 9-cm pelvic mass. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?
• A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the v*gina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding (DUB) is defined as abnormal uterine bleeding ?
• Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is said to present when there is bleeding due to :
• Female patient with endometrial hyperplasia could be all of these except: