Q.

A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the v*gina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Chemotherapy
B. Cone biopsy
C. Dilation and curettage
D. Hysteroscopy
E. Hysterectomy
Answer» E. Hysterectomy
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