A 40-years-old female with history of fibroid on investigation showed CIN-2 changes. Treatment of choice in this case is :

Related MCQs

• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lower abdominal pain and discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :
• Female patient with history of endometriosis , menstrual disorders complaining from pain on right iliac fossa , on examination there was tenderness on right iliac fossa with no rebound pain no rigidity , on CBC it was normal , most likely :
• Female patient with history of hydatiform and complaining of lower abdominal pain , on examination there was tenderness on palpation and the lab result show high level of HCG , most likely to be :
• Female with history of frequent micturition may be :
• Female came to the ER with Bp 80/60 and pulse 125 with history of acute abdomen , next step is
• Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following execpt:
• A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past three months. Your first investigation should be:
• 58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two weeks. The most essential investigation would be:
• The Wolfian duct in the female :