Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lower abdominal pain and discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :

Related MCQs

• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Female patient with history of hydatiform and complaining of lower abdominal pain , on examination there was tenderness on palpation and the lab result show high level of HCG , most likely to be :
• Female patient with history of endometriosis , menstrual disorders complaining from pain on right iliac fossa , on examination there was tenderness on right iliac fossa with no rebound pain no rigidity , on CBC it was normal , most likely :
• A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be:
• Female came to the ER with Bp 80/60 and pulse 125 with history of acute abdomen , next step is
• A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is:
• A young girl, 23 years old is presented with complaint of abdominal pain, menorrhagia and 18 weeks size mass arising from hypogastrium. The most likely diagnosis is:
• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• Female patient with endometrial hyperplasia could be all of these except:
• Female patient with acute abdomen , CBC normal , B-HCG negative , No vaginal bleeding , Mostly is :