Most important cause of immediate post partum hemorrhage:

Related MCQs

• Which of the following does not occur in post partum pituitary necrosis :
• Which is the most common cause of abnormal lie?
• The most dangerous symptom during pregnancy is:
• What is the most common side effect with MTX therapy for ectopic pregnancy
• Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?
• Invasive molar tissue is most commonly found in
• A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section. Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender. The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
• A 19-year-old nulliparous woman in her 35th week of pregnancy presents with nausea, blurred vision and a weight gain of 4.5 kg per week. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg. Which of the following tests is the most suitable for the assessment of fetal status?