Treatment of early stage favorable Hodgkin‟s lymphoma …

Related MCQs

• A 43-year-old man is evaluated because of crushing substernal chest pain that developed during a pickup basketball game with colleagues at work. He was treated 15 years ago for stage IIB massive mediastinal Hodgkin‟s disease. Treatment included doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinbiastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD) followed by mantle-field radiation therapy to a total dose of 4400 cGy. He has had no recurrence of his Hodgkin‟s disease. He takes thyroid medication because he developed hypothyroidism 2 years after completing his therapy for Hodgkins disease. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which of the following Hodgkin lymphoma subtypes is most closely associated with the development of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
• A 68-year-old man is evaluated because of worsening chronic epigastric pain. He now has fatigue and early satiety. He has iron deficiency anemia. Results of upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveal diffuse gastritis, along with mucosal thickening in the gastric antrum associated with a mass lesion. Abundant Helicobacter pylon organisms are noted on biopsy, and histologic evaluation of the mass lesion shows it to be a gastric lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) type. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patients illness?
• A 40-year-old woman has a routine gynecologic examination. At the age of 32 years, she gave birth to twins after receiving fertility drugs. She has just seen a television program on ovarian cancer, and is concerned because previous use of fertility drugs and a family history of ovarian cancer were mentioned as possible risk factors. Her mother developed endometrial cancer at 56 years, and a paternal uncle was diagnosed with a type of lymphoma at 60 years. She has one older sister with hypertension and one younger brother who is healthy. Results of her pelvic examination are unremarkable, but she asks what additional tests she should have to look for ovarian cancer in the early stages that cannot be detected by physical examination. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
• A 28-year-old woman was found to have stage IV Burkitt‟s lymphoma. Her renal function was normal and a staging CT scan had shown no abnormality of the renal tract. Three days later, when she was about to start chemotherapy, she developed a temperature of 39.0°C with rigors and was treated with imipenem. Investigations (the following day): serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137–144) serum potassium 6.2 mmol/L (3.5–4.9) serum creatinine 215 μmol/L (60–110) serum corrected calcium 1.60 mmol/L (2.20–2.60) serum phosphate 1.52 mmol/L (0.8–1.4) serum lactate dehydrogenase 1238 U/L (10–250) serum urate 0.69 mmol/L (0.19–0.36) What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?
• In an office visit for an annual checkup, a 46-year-old man reports that he has had malaise and intermittent sweats for the past few months but has been able to continue his job as a high school teacher. Two years ago he was treated for stage III diffuse large-cell non-Hodgkin‟s lymphoma with six cycles of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) and attained complete remission. He takes simvastatin for hypercholesterolemia and hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. On physical examination, he has lymphadenopathy: a 3-cm right axillary node and a 2- cm right supraclavicular node. His spleen tip is palpable. Laboratory evaluation shows mild normochromic, normocytic anemia and an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase level. CT scans of his chest and abdomen reveal additional mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 3-year-old girl has Wilms tumor with a favorable histology and a positive surgical margin. CT scan of the chest does not reveal any pulmonary nodules. What cancer stage is most appropriate for the patient's condition?
• A 29-year-old man was diagnosed with stage II (that is, spread from the primary tumor to retroperitoneal lymph nodes) nonseminomatous germ cell tumor 1 year ago. Treatment included orchiectomy and retroperitoneal lymph node dissection. He now presents with an elevated level of β-human chorionic gonadotropin hormone and multiple pulmonary lesions ranging in size from 0.61 to 3.22 cm. Needle biopsy specimen of the largest lesion reveals a germ cell tumor consistent with the initial diagnosis. He is asymptomatic. What is the best treatment for this patient?
• A 40 year old female presents with mediastinal hilar lymphadenopathy and she has recently noticed slight weight loss and a cough. Staging shows no other evidence of disease. A trucut biopsy reveals a lymphoma showing large cells with mirror image nuclei, lymphocytes, plasma cells and eosinophils. The following phenotype is seen; CD20 positive, CD3 negative, CLA positive, and CD15 positive
• Lymphoma of the stomach: