Which of the following processes is NOT commonly involved in the development of bone metastases?

Related MCQs

• A 30-year-old man presented with a swelling in the testis and an ultrasound scan confirmed the presence of a malignant mass. Following orchidectomy, he was found to have a 40-mm seminomatous germ cell tumour without non-seminomatous components. There was evidence of vascular invasion within the testis.Investigations: serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1250 U/L (10–250) serum α-fetoprotein normal serum β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) 700 U/L (<5) A CT scan of body showed retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy of up to 7 cm in size, a 3- cm mediastinal lymph node and over 30 pulmonary metastases. There were no signs of liver, brain or bone metastases. What is the most appropriate International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group classification?
• A 40-year-old woman was treated for breast cancer 5 years ago by lumpectomy, breast irradiation, and 3 months of chemotherapy. Her original cancer was negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and unequivocally positive for HER2. Her periods stopped during chemotherapy but resumed 4 months later, and she remains premenopausal now. She is evaluated now because of pain in her back, a nagging cough, and fatigue. Physical examination shows palpable skin nodules over the affected breast, axillary adenopathy, and dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds in the base of the left lung; her liver edge is palpable below the right costochondral border. Liver function values are approximately twice normal; serum bilirubin is normal. Radiograph of the chest shows multiple pulmonary nodules and a left pleural effusion confirmed by CT, which also shows the liver nodules. Bone scan and MRI are consistent with bone metastases. Biopsy of one of the skin lesions is consistent with metast
• A 68-year-old man with a 60-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a right hilar mass and mediastinal widening. CT scans of the chest and abdomen confirm the hilar mass and bulky lymphadenopathy in the mediastinum with no other overt metastases. Bronchoscopic biopsy specimen shows small-cell lung cancer. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are negative for tumor. A low serum sodium level and inappropriately high urine osmolality suggest that he has the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
• Which of the following statements about the treatment of bone metastases secondary to breast cancer is true?
• Which of the following lymph nodes is NOT commonly associated with prostate cancer metastases?
• For previous patients, after the appropriate evaluation, the patient undergoes surgery. No intraoperative evidence of metastases is identified. Postoperatively, the pathology report reveals that the tumor is an adenocarcinoma invading into the pericolonic fat, with 2 involved lymph nodes. After the patient recovers from surgery, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
• A 70-year-old man is found to have distal rectal cancer during a screening colonoscopy. The patient undergoes preoperative staging and is found to have a 1.5-cm rectal mass that does not invade the muscularis propria of the rectal wall. There is no regional lymphadenopathy and no evidence of distant metastases. The patient is staged at T1N0M0. The patient is advised to undergo APR but refuses because it will lead to anal sphincter loss and permanent colostomy. Which of the following represents a viable alternate therapeutic option for this patient?
• Which of the following statements about brain metastases secondary to breast cancer is not true?
• A 57-year-old man is found to have a rectal mass 3 cm from the anal verge on digital rectal examination. Subsequent colonoscopy and biopsy confirm rectal adenocarcinoma. EUS examination demonstrates penetration of the tumor into, but not through, the muscularis propria, but shows significant perirectal lymph nodes. CT scan of chest/abdomen/pelvis demonstrates no metastases. The patient is staged as T2N1M0. What procedure should be attempted to remove the primary lesion in this patient?
• An elderly lady with breast cancer is starting diamorphine elixir for painful bony metastases. Which of the following is the most appropriate comment to make to her caregiver.