220+ Ophthalmology Solved MCQs

1.

Distichiasis is:

A. Misdirected eyelashes
B. Accessory row of eyelashes
C. Downward drooping of upper lid
D. Outward protrusion of lower lid
Answer» B. Accessory row of eyelashes
2.

Band shaped keratopathy is commonly caused by deposition of:

A. Magnesium salt
B. Calcium salt
C. Ferrous salt
D. Copper salt
Answer» B. Calcium salt
3.

Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:

A. Corticosteroids
B. Cycloplegics
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungals
Answer» B. Cycloplegics
4.

Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:

A. Adherent Leucoma
B. Dense leucoma
C. Ciliary staphyloma
D. Iris bombe
Answer» A. Adherent Leucoma
5.

Corneal sensations are diminished in:

A. Herpes simplex
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fungal infections
D. Marginal keratitis
Answer» A. Herpes simplex
6.

The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:

A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Royal blue
Answer» C. Green
7.

Phlycten is due to:

A. Endogenous allergy
B. Exogenous allergy
C. Degeneration
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Endogenous allergy
8.

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:

A. Trachoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Answer» D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
9.

Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium?

A. Strept pyogenes
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer» D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
10.

A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is:

A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer» A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
11.

A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. Trachoma
B. Staphylococal conjunctivitis
C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
12.

Patching of the eye is contraindicated in:

A. Corneal abrasion
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. After glaucoma surgery
Answer» C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
13.

Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most probably suffers from:

A. Trachoma
B. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
C. Bulbar spring catarrh
D. Purulent conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Bulbar spring catarrh
14.

In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually:

A. Copious purulent discharge
B. Copious muco-purulent discharge
C. Excessive watery lacrimation
D. Mucoid ropy white discharge
Answer» C. Excessive watery lacrimation
15.

Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:

A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
C. Active trachoma
D. Spring catarrh
Answer» C. Active trachoma
16.

A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and conjunctiva redness at the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is expected to show:

A. Slaphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli
Answer» D. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli
17.

Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of:

A. Active trachoma
B. Bulbar spring catarrh
C. Corneal phlycten
D. Vitamin A deficiency
Answer» B. Bulbar spring catarrh
18.

A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to:

A. Bulbar spring catarrh.
B. Episcleritis.
C. Vascular pterygium.
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
Answer» A. Bulbar spring catarrh.
19.

In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is:

A. Arlt's line
B. Herbert's pits
C. Post-trachomatous concretions.
D. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
Answer» D. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
20.

A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be:

A. Acute anterior uveitis.
B. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
C. Bacterial corneal ulcer.
D. Acute congestive glaucoma
Answer» B. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
21.

Fifth nerve palsy could cause:

A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Neuropathic keratopathy
D. Lagophthalmos
Answer» C. Neuropathic keratopathy
22.

Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of:

A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Cortical cataract.
C. Corneal perforation
D. Secondary viral infection.
Answer» C. Corneal perforation
23.

The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is

A. Ciliary injection
B. Blepharospasm
C. Miosis
D. Positive fluorescein test.
Answer» D. Positive fluorescein test.
24.

The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is:

A. Surface anesthesia
B. Local corticosteroids
C. Systemic corticosteroids
D. Acyclovir ointment
Answer» D. Acyclovir ointment
25.

Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by:

A. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber
B. No tendency to recurrence
C. Corneal hyposthesia
D. Tendency to perforate
Answer» C. Corneal hyposthesia
26.

Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium:

A. Neisseria gonorrhea.
B. Staphylococcal epidermidis
C. Moraxella lacunata.
D. Staphylococcal aureus
Answer» A. Neisseria gonorrhea.
27.

Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by:

A. Hard contact Lens,
B. Rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens
C. Spectacles.
D. Keratoplasty.
Answer» C. Spectacles.
28.

Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are:

A. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli
B. Pneumococci
C. Gonococci
D. Adenovirus
Answer» A. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli
29.

Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of

A. Meibomian gland
B. Zies’s gland
C. Sweat gland
D. Wolfring’s gland
Answer» A. Meibomian gland
30.

Deep leucoma is best treated by:

A. Tattooing
B. Lamellar keratoplasty
C. Keratectomy
D. Penetrating keratoplasty
Answer» D. Penetrating keratoplasty
31.

Blood vessels in a trachomatous pannus lie:

A. Beneath the Descemet's membrane.
B. In the substantia propria.
C. Between Bowman's membrane & substantia propria.
D. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium.
Answer» D. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium.
32.

In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are:

A. Macrophage
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Epitheloid cells
Answer» B. Eosinophils
33.

Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to paralysis of:

A. Riolan's muscle
B. Horner's muscle
C. Muller's muscle
D. The levator palpebral muscle
Answer» C. Muller's muscle
34.

Severe congenital ptosis with no levator function can be treated by:

A. Levator resection from skin side
B. Levator resection from conjunctival side
C. Fascia lata sling operation
D. Fasanella servat operation
Answer» C. Fascia lata sling operation
35.

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

A. Moraxella
B. Gonococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
Answer» C. Pneumococcus
36.

Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:

A. Corticosteroid
B. Atropine
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungal
Answer» B. Atropine
37.

Fleischer ring is found in:

A. Keratoconus
B. Chalcosis
C. Argyrosis
D. Buphthalmos
Answer» A. Keratoconus
38.

Intercalary staphyloma is a type of:

A. Equatorial staphyloma
B. Posterior staphyloma
C. Scleral staphyloma
D. Anterior staphyloma
Answer» C. Scleral staphyloma
39.

Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:

A. Trochlear nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Oculomotor nerve
Answer» C. Trigeminal nerve
40.

Ciliary injection is not seen in:

A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Bacterial ulcer
C. Chronic iridocyclitis
D. Catarrhal conjunctivitis
Answer» D. Catarrhal conjunctivitis
41.

Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by:

A. Epithelial layer
B. Substantia propria
C. Descemet's membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer» B. Substantia propria
42.

A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology?

A. Anterior uveitis
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Corneal laceration
Answer» C. Fungal corneal ulcer
43.

Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:

A. Facial palsy
B. Peripheral neuritis
C. Oculomotor palsy
D. Sympathetic palsy
Answer» C. Oculomotor palsy
44.

Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:

A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Iridocyclitis
D. High myopia
Answer» D. High myopia
45.

In DCR, the opening is made at:

A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. none
Answer» B. Middle meatus
46.

Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:

A. Dry eye
B. Infective keratitis
C. Watering eyes
D. Horner’s syndrome
Answer» A. Dry eye
47.

3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes regurgitation of mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment?

A. Dacryocystorhinostomy
B. Probing
C. Probing with syringing
D. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
Answer» D. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
48.

Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis

A. Thyroid orbitopathy
B. Metastasis
C. Lymphoma
D. Meningioma
Answer» A. Thyroid orbitopathy
49.

Evisceration is:

A. Excision of the entire eyeball
B. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
C. Photocoagulation of the retina
D. Removal of orbit contents
Answer» B. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
50.

Lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except;

A. 7th cranial nerve paralysis
B. 5th cranial nerve paralysis
C. Thyrotoxic exophthalmos
D. Symblepharon
Answer» B. 5th cranial nerve paralysis
51.

The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from panophthalmitis is:

A. Vision
B. Pain
C. Redness
D. Swelling
Answer» A. Vision
52.

The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:

A. Thyroid eye disease
B. Lacrimal gland tumour
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer» A. Thyroid eye disease
53.

Proptosis is present in the following condition except:

A. Horner's syndrome
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer» A. Horner's syndrome
54.

All of the following are part of uvea except:

A. Pars plicata
B. Pars plana
C. Choroid
D. Schwalbe’s line
Answer» D. Schwalbe’s line
55.

One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes:

A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer» D. Aqueous flare
56.

In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:

A. Of normal size
B. Constricted
C. Dilated
D. none
Answer» B. Constricted
57.

Koeppe’s nodules are found in:

A. Cornea
B. Sclera
C. Iris
D. Conjunctiva
Answer» C. Iris
58.

Aqueous humour is formed by:

A. Epithelium of ciliary body
B. Posterior surface of iris
C. Lens
D. Pars plana
Answer» A. Epithelium of ciliary body
59.

The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:

A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer» D. Aqueous flare
60.

Which laser is used for capsulotomy?

A. Diode laser
B. Carbon dioxide laser
C. Excimer laser
D. ND: YAG laser
Answer» D. ND: YAG laser
61.

Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following except:

A. Anterior chamber intraocular lens
B. Posterior chamber intraocular lens
C. Contact tens
D. Glasses
Answer» D. Glasses
62.

Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:

A. Fistulizing operation
B. Cataract extraction
C. Cyclo-destructive procedure
D. Miotics and Beta blockers
Answer» B. Cataract extraction
63.

Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:

A. Intumescent cataract.
B. Anterior lens dislocation,
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. Posterior lens dislocation
Answer» C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
64.

Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:

A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
B. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
C. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
D. Small incision cataract extraction
Answer» A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
65.

Best site where intraocular lens is fitted:

A. Capsular ligament
B. Endosulcus
C. Ciliary supported
D. Capsular bag
Answer» D. Capsular bag
66.

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be:

A. Secondary glaucoma.
B. Anterior uveitis.
C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
D. Acute conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
67.

All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the following except:

A. Roenne’s nasal step
B. Enlarged blind spot
C. Generalized depression of isopters
D. Loss of central fields
Answer» D. Loss of central fields
68.

The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is:

A. Surgical peripheral iridectomy
B. Yag laser iridotomy
C. Trabeculotomy
D. Trabeculectomy
Answer» B. Yag laser iridotomy
69.

Topical atropine is contraindicated in:

A. Retinoscopy in children
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Answer» D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
70.

Neovascular glaucoma follows:

A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
B. Acute congestive glaucoma
C. Staphylococcal infection
D. Hypertension
Answer» A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
71.

A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Congenital dacryocystitis
B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Buphthalmos
Answer» D. Buphthalmos
72.

You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case?

A. Shallow anterior chamber
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Narrow angle
D. visual acuity and refractive error
Answer» B. Optic disc cupping
73.

Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer» A. 9
74.

In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:

A. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
C. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
D. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
Answer» B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
75.

100 days glaucoma is seen in:

A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion
C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer» C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
76.

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is:

A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer» A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
77.

Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in:

A. Papilloedema
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Papillitis
D. Retinitis
Answer» B. Retinoblastoma
78.

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

A. Macular oedema
B. Microaneurysm
C. Retinal hemorrhage
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» A. Macular oedema
79.

Commotio retinae is seen in:

A. Concussion injury
B. Papilloedema
C. Central retinal vein thrombosis
D. Central retinal artery thrombosis
Answer» A. Concussion injury
80.

Night blindness is caused by:

A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
C. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
81.

In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:

A. Hemorrhage at macula
B. Increased choroidal perfusion
C. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Answer» D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
82.

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is:

A. Retinoblastoma
B. Choroidal melanoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
D. Iris nevus
Answer» B. Choroidal melanoma
83.

A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have:

A. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer» C. Vitreous hemorrhage
84.

Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects:

A. Lower nasal sector field defect
B. Upper nasal sector field defect
C. Upper temporal field defect
D. Lower temporal sector field defect
Answer» C. Upper temporal field defect
85.

Primary optic atrophy results from:

A. Retinal disease
B. Chronic glaucoma
C. Papilledema
D. Neurological disease
Answer» D. Neurological disease
86.

Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:

A. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
C. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
D. Normal visual acuity
Answer» B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
87.

The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:

A. Secondary optic atrophy
B. Consecutive optic atrophy
C. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
D. Primary optic atrophy
Answer» A. Secondary optic atrophy
88.

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. Raised intra cranial pressure
B. Raised ocular tension
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Optic neuritis
Answer» D. Optic neuritis
89.

All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:

A. Ptosis
B. Diplopia
C. Miosis
D. Outwards eye deviation
Answer» C. Miosis
90.

Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:

A. Optic tract
B. Optic nerve
C. Optic chiasma
D. Retina
Answer» A. Optic tract
91.

Which is not found in papilloedema?

A. Blurred vision
B. Blurred margins of disc
C. Cupping of disc
D. Retinal edema
Answer» C. Cupping of disc
92.

Optic disc diameter is:

A. 1 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm
Answer» B. 1.5 mm
93.

Optic nerve function is best studied by:

A. Direct Ophthalmoscope
B. Retinoscope
C. Perimetry
D. Gonioscopy
Answer» C. Perimetry
94.

Optic nerve axon emerges from:

A. Ganglion cells
B. Rods and cones
C. Amacrine cells
D. Inner nuclear layer
Answer» A. Ganglion cells
95.

Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except:

A. Marked loss of vision
B. Blurring of disc margins
C. Hyperemia of disc
D. Field defect
Answer» A. Marked loss of vision
96.

Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:

A. Optic chiasma
B. Retina
C. optic tract
D. Optic nerve
Answer» C. optic tract
97.

Mydriasis is present in all the following except:

A. Third nerve lesion
B. Pontine haemorrhage
C. Datura poisoning
D. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Answer» B. Pontine haemorrhage
98.

D-shaped pupil occurs in:

A. Iridocyclitis
B. Iridodenesis
C. Cyclodialsis
D. Iridodialysis
Answer» D. Iridodialysis
99.

In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is:

A. Inward
B. Outward
C. Outward and up
D. Outward and down
Answer» D. Outward and down
100.

All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:

A. Superior rectus
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Inferior oblique
D. Superior oblique
Answer» B. Ciliary muscle
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