McqMate
1. |
Smoking is associated with all the following diseases EXCEPT |
A. | spontaneous abortion |
B. | atherosclerosis |
C. | bladder carcinoma |
D. | chronic liver disease |
Answer» D. chronic liver disease |
2. |
Smoking is associated with |
D. | particle deposition in alveolar macrophages |
Answer» D. particle deposition in alveolar macrophages |
3. |
In pulmonary tuberculosis |
A. | the Ghon complex is a parenchymal peri-hilar lesion |
B. | bacilli establish themselves in sites of low oxygen tension |
C. | liquefactive necrosis precedes granuloma formation |
D. | Langhans cells occur in coalescent granulomas |
E. | Primary TB causes more damage to lungs than secondary TB |
Answer» D. Langhans cells occur in coalescent granulomas |
4. |
The commonest site of primary TB lesion in lung is |
A. | apex |
B. | base |
C. | hilum |
D. | lower zone of upper lobe |
E. | peripherally |
Answer» E. peripherally |
5. |
Regarding the changes to myocardium after MI |
A. | pallor at 24 hours |
B. | wavy fibres are found centrally |
C. | decreased contractility after 5 minutes |
D. | liquefactive necrosis is typical |
E. | sarcoplasm is resorbed by leukocytes |
Answer» A. pallor at 24 hours |
6. |
In compensated cardiac hypertrophy changes include |
A. | diffuse fibrosis |
B. | hyperplasia |
C. | decreased sarcomeres |
D. | increased capillary density |
E. | increased capillary/myocyte ratio |
Answer» A. diffuse fibrosis |
7. |
In atherosclerosis the cells at the centre of the plaque are |
A. | macrophages |
B. | foam cells |
C. | leukocytes |
D. | smooth muscle cells |
Answer» B. foam cells |
8. |
All of the following are major risk factors for atherosclerosis EXCEPT |
A. | obesity |
B. | hyperlipidemia |
C. | smoking |
D. | hypertension |
E. | diabetes |
Answer» A. obesity |
9. |
Endocarditis in IV drug abusers typically |
A. | involves the mitral valve |
B. | is caused by candida albicans |
C. | does not cause fever |
D. | has a better prognosis than other types of endocarditis |
E. | is caused by staph aureus |
Answer» E. is caused by staph aureus |
10. |
The commonest cause of fungal endocarditis is |
A. | actinomycosis |
B. | as |
C. | as |
D. | candida |
E. | blatomycosis |
Answer» D. candida |
11. |
With regard to MI |
A. | gross necrotic changes are present within 3-5 hours |
B. | irreversible cell injury occurs in less than 10 minutes |
C. | fibrotic scarring is completed in less than 2 weeks |
D. | death occurs in 20 % of cases in less than 2 hours |
E. | is most commonly caused by occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery |
Answer» D. death occurs in 20 % of cases in less than 2 hours |
12. |
Regarding pericarditis |
A. | constrictive pericarditis only rarely follows suppurative pericarditis |
B. | primary pericarditis is usually bacterial in origin |
C. | serous pericarditis may be due to ureamia |
D. | haemorrhagic pericarditis is most commonly due to Klebsiella infection |
E. | fibrinous pericarditis is due to TB until proven otherwise |
Answer» C. serous pericarditis may be due to ureamia |
13. |
Shock results in |
D. | decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure |
Answer» D. decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure |
14. |
Patient who has a normal blood pressure post MI must have |
A. | increased cardiac output |
B. | increased systolic filling pressure |
C. | increased right atrial pressure |
Answer» B. increased systolic filling pressure |
15. |
Acute endocarditis |
A. | has a less than 20 % mortality |
B. | is caused by virulent micro-organisms |
C. | 30 % is caused bacteria |
Answer» B. is caused by virulent micro-organisms |
16. |
Congestive cardiac failure may be caused by |
A. | vitamin A deficiency |
B. | niacin deficiency |
C. | vitamin D deficiency |
D. | thiamine deficiency |
E. | vitamin C deficiency |
Answer» D. thiamine deficiency |
17. |
Thromboctopenia |
A. | occurs commonly in HIV |
B. | causes spontaneous bleeding at levels of less than 90,000/mm |
C. | occurs with hyposplenism |
D. | is related to platelet survival in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria |
E. | is not associated with megaloblastic anaemia |
Answer» A. occurs commonly in HIV |
18. |
A young man presents with central chest pain presumed to be associated with vasoconstriction. The most likely cause of the pain is local |
A. | hypoxia |
B. | decreased ATP |
C. | increased CO2 |
D. | catecholamines acting on alpha 1 receptors |
E. | acetylcholine stimulation |
Answer» A. hypoxia |
19. |
An adult male with an ejection fraction of 80 % could be due to |
A. | myocardial ischaemia |
B. | arrhythmia |
C. | thiamine deficiency |
Answer» C. thiamine deficiency |
20. |
Malignant hypertension |
A. | 75 % recover with no loss of renal function |
B. | is associated with abnormal renin levels |
E. | affects 1 to 5 % of sufferers |
Answer» E. affects 1 to 5 % of sufferers |
21. |
The cause of fluid retention peripherally with congestive cardiac failure is |
A. | increased renin |
B. | increased GFR |
C. | increased angiotensin 2 |
D. | increased aldosterone |
Answer» D. increased aldosterone |
22. |
Rheumatic carditis is associated with |
A. | Curschmann spirals |
B. | Ito cells |
C. | Aschoff bodies |
D. | Nutmeg cells |
E. | Reed-sternberg cells |
Answer» C. Aschoff bodies |
23. |
Bradykinin |
A. | causes smooth muscle dilatation |
B. | kallikrein causes prohormone degredation to produce bradykinin |
Answer» B. kallikrein causes prohormone degredation to produce bradykinin |
24. |
Diabetes is associated with |
A. | carbuncles |
B. | mucormycosis |
E. | all of the above |
Answer» E. all of the above |
25. |
Pathogenesis of type 1 diabetes is associated with |
A. | decreased insulin sensitivity |
B. | abnormal glucokinase activity |
C. | no antibodies found at diagnosis |
D. | auto-immune insulitis |
E. | twin concordance greater than 70 % |
Answer» D. auto-immune insulitis |
26. |
In type 1 diabetes |
A. | associated organ-specific auto-immune disorders are common |
B. | a genetic susceptibility is not supported by evidence |
C. | Finnish children have a 70 fold increase compared with Korean children |
D. | Influenza and varicella viruses are suspected as initiators of the disease |
E. | Children who ingest cows milk early in life may have a lower incidence |
Answer» C. Finnish children have a 70 fold increase compared with Korean children |
27. |
Regarding pancreatitis |
A. | the second most common cause is infectious agents |
B. | trypsin is implicated as an activator of the kinin system |
C. | the chronic form is usually due to gallstones |
D. | duct obstruction is not the mechanism in alcoholic pancreatitis |
E. | elastase is the only pancreatic enzyme that acts to limit pancreatitis |
Answer» B. trypsin is implicated as an activator of the kinin system |
28. |
In acute pancreatitis |
A. | fat necrosis occurs in other intra-abdominal fatty deposits |
B. | trauma is the precipitating cause in 30 % of cases |
C. | alcohol is directly toxic to the Islets of Langerhans |
D. | Kallikrein converts trypsin to activate the complement system |
E. | Erythromycin has been implicated in severe cases |
Answer» A. fat necrosis occurs in other intra-abdominal fatty deposits |
29. |
With regards to jaundice |
A. | Conjugated bilirubin causes kernicterus in adults |
B. | Unconjugated bilirubin does not colour sclera |
C. | Unconjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin |
D. | Unconjugated bilirubin produces bilirubin in urine |
E. | Conjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin |
Answer» C. Unconjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin |
30. |
In cirrhosis |
A. | fibrosis is confined to the delicate bands around central veins |
B. | nodularity is uncommon |
C. | vascular architecture is preserved |
D. | the Ito cell is a major source of excess collagen |
E. | the left lobe of the liver is most affected |
Answer» D. the Ito cell is a major source of excess collagen |
31. |
Cirrhosis is associated with |
B. | reorganised liver vasculature with scarring |
Answer» B. reorganised liver vasculature with scarring |
32. |
Oesophageal varices |
A. | occur in one third of all cirrhosis patients |
B. | account for more than 50 % of episodes of haematemesis |
C. | are most often associated with hepatitis C cirrhosis |
D. | have a 40 % mortality during the first episode of rupture |
E. | lie primarily in the middle portion of the oesophagus |
Answer» D. have a 40 % mortality during the first episode of rupture |
33. |
Concerning acute tubular necrosis |
A. | cephalosporins are not a causative agent |
B. | nephrotoxic causes are associated with a poor prognosis |
C. | casts are found in the loop of Henle |
D. | rhabdomyolysis is not a cause |
E. | ischaemic tubular necrosis is uncommon after haemorrhagic shock |
Answer» C. casts are found in the loop of Henle |
34. |
Regarding acute tubular necrosis |
A. | it is associated with hyperkalemia not hypokalemia in recovery |
B. | non-oliguric has a better recovery |
C. | it is associated with ischaemic cortical cells |
D. | 80 % are associated with anuria |
Answer» B. non-oliguric has a better recovery |
35. |
Ischaemic tubular necrosis is associated with |
A. | maintenance stage with polyuria |
B. | predominantly proximal necrosis |
C. | intact basement membranes |
D. | tubular cast obstruction |
E. | distal necrosis only |
Answer» D. tubular cast obstruction |
36. |
Regarding the hepatorenal syndrome |
A. | it is irreversible |
B. | one loses the ability to concentrate urine |
C. | urine has a high sodium concentration |
D. | the urine is hyperosmolar |
E. | the favoured theory of it’s generation involves increased renal blood |
Answer» D. the urine is hyperosmolar |
37. |
Urolithiasis |
A. | presence of hypercalcemia implies renal insufficiency |
B. | a patient with leukemia is likely to make cystine calculi |
C. | calcium is the major component of 35% of calculi |
D. | struvite stones are made up of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate |
E. | the commonest cause of calcium oxalate stones is hypercalciuria |
Answer» D. struvite stones are made up of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate |
38. |
In pyelonephritis |
A. | 85 % of infections are caused by G-ve bacteria |
B. | uretral obstruction makes haematogenous infection less likely |
C. | uretral obstruction allows bacteria to ascend the ureter into the pelvis |
D. | infection is less likely during pregnancy |
E. | papillary necrosis and perinephric abscess are common seqelae |
Answer» A. 85 % of infections are caused by G-ve bacteria |
39. |
Cushing syndrome is associated with |
A. | osteoporosis |
B. | general obesity |
C. | hypotension |
Answer» A. osteoporosis |
40. |
Macrocytic anaemia is associated with all the following except |
A. | Hyperthyroidism |
B. | Neoplasm |
C. | Folate and B12 deficiency |
D. | Pregnancy |
E. | EBV |
Answer» E. EBV |
41. |
Myositis ossificans |
A. | Morphologically resembles osteosarcoma |
B. | Resembles the repair process following a muscle tear |
Answer» A. Morphologically resembles osteosarcoma |
42. |
Hypothyroidism is associated with all of the following EXCEPT |
A. | cretinism |
D. | decreased hair growth |
E. | cold intolerance |
Answer» D. decreased hair growth |
43. |
Which of the following reactions is cell mediated |
A. | SLE |
B. | Arthus reaction |
C. | Anaphylaxis |
D. | Graft rejection |
E. | Goodpastures |
Answer» D. Graft rejection |
44. |
Myelefibrosis |
A. | causes decreased megakaryocytes |
B. | stimulates erythropoetin production |
C. | causes leukoerythroblastic anaemia |
Answer» C. causes leukoerythroblastic anaemia |
45. |
The commonest cause of thyroid carcinoma is |
A. | medullary |
B. | follicular |
C. | papillary |
D. | anaplastic |
E. | squamous |
Answer» C. papillary |
46. |
Stress fractures |
A. | do not incite a paracortical reaction |
E. | result from repetitive stresses or abnormal axial loading |
Answer» E. result from repetitive stresses or abnormal axial loading |
47. |
A performed mediator of inflammation is |
A. | Prostaglandin |
B. | Histamine |
C. | Leukotriene |
D. | Nitric oxide |
E. | Platelet activating factor |
Answer» B. Histamine |
48. |
In normal haemostasis |
A. | Factor V inhibits thrombosis |
B. | Alpha 2 microglobulin is antithrombotic |
C. | PGI2 favours platelet aggregation |
D. | Platelet aggregation is inhibited by von Willebrand factor |
E. | Tissue plasminogen activator is responsible for prothrombotic events |
Answer» B. Alpha 2 microglobulin is antithrombotic |
49. |
Mononuclear phagocytes |
A. | Are the predominant cells in three day old wounds |
B. | Are common in liver, spleen and pancreas |
C. | Produce fibroblast growth factor |
D. | Secrete interferon Y |
E. | Have a half life of one day |
Answer» C. Produce fibroblast growth factor |
50. |
Normal endothelial cells decrease platelet aggregation by secreting |
A. | Interleukin 1 |
B. | von Willebrand factor |
C. | Prostacyclin |
D. | Factor V |
E. | Thromboplastin |
Answer» C. Prostacyclin |
51. |
Interleukin 1 causes |
A. | Neutropaenia |
B. | Decreased sleep |
C. | Decreased prostaglandin synthesis |
D. | Increased collagen synthesis |
E. | Decreased leukocyte adherence |
Answer» D. Increased collagen synthesis |
52. |
Thrombosis is potentiated by all of the following except |
A. | von Willebrand factor deficiency |
B. | Protein S deficiency |
C. | Antithrombin III deficiency |
D. | Thrombotic thrombocytopenia |
E. | Acute leukaemia |
Answer» A. von Willebrand factor deficiency |
53. |
Acute compensatory mechanisms in shock include all of the following except |
A. | Baroreceptor reflexes |
B. | Reverse stress-relaxation of vascular smooth muscle |
C. | The effects of increased aldosterone secretion |
D. | Activation of the renin-angiotensin system |
E. | The central nervous system ischaemic response |
Answer» C. The effects of increased aldosterone secretion |
54. |
The following are primary mediators of type I hypersensitivity reactions except |
A. | Adenosine |
B. | Neutrophil chemotactic factor |
C. | Heparin |
D. | Platelet activating factor |
E. | Acid hydrolases |
Answer» D. Platelet activating factor |
55. |
Malignant neoplasms |
A. | Are independent of hormonal influence |
B. | Are always composed of homogeneous cell lines |
C. | Arise from differentiated cells by a process of anaplasia |
D. | Display abnormal nuclei with pale nucleoli |
E. | Typically grow more rapidly than benign |
Answer» E. Typically grow more rapidly than benign |
56. |
Regarding metastasis |
A. | All carcinomas have the ability to metastasise |
B. | Highly invasive carcinomas rarely metastasise |
C. | Carcinomas typically spread via lymphatics compared with haematogenous spread |
D. | Tumour cells develop increased cohesiveness of their cell surface in the formation of cancer cell emboli |
E. | Cells involved in lymphatic dissemination release degradative enzymes |
Answer» E. Cells involved in lymphatic dissemination release degradative enzymes |
57. |
HIV infection |
A. | Is caused by rhinovirus |
B. | Results in increased CD4 and T cell memory |
C. | Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio |
D. | Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells |
E. | Causes a CD4-CD8 ratio close to 2 |
Answer» C. Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio |
58. |
A typical feature of AIDS |
A. | Decreased delayed type hypersensitivity reaction |
B. | Lymphocytosis |
C. | Hypogammaglobulinaemia |
D. | Increase CD4 and T cells |
E. | Increase chemotaxis and phagocytosis |
Answer» A. Decreased delayed type hypersensitivity reaction |
59. |
In reversible cell injury, all are true except |
A. | ATP depletion is responsible for acute cellular swelling |
B. | Can cause myocardial cells to cease contraction within 60 seconds |
C. | ATP is generated anaerobically from creatine phosphate |
D. | Mitochondrial swelling and degranulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular damage |
E. | Is associated with myelin figures |
Answer» D. Mitochondrial swelling and degranulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular damage |
60. |
Metaplasia |
A. | Is irreversible |
B. | Is commonly a change from squamous to columnar epithelium |
C. | An example is the transformation of epithelial cells into chondroblasts to produce cartilage |
D. | Retinoids may play a role |
E. | Even if the stimuli is persistent, it is a benign lesion |
Answer» D. Retinoids may play a role |
61. |
In apoptosis |
A. | It involves physiologic and pathologic stimuli |
B. | Histologically, it involves coagulation necrosis |
C. | Its DNA breakdown is random and diffuse |
D. | Its mechanism involves ATP depletion |
E. | It involves an inflammatory tissue reaction |
Answer» A. It involves physiologic and pathologic stimuli |
62. |
Hyperplasia |
A. | Occurs after partial hepatectomy |
B. | Refers to an increase in the size of cells |
C. | Is always a pathologic process |
D. | Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle |
E. | Usually progresses to cancerous proliferation |
Answer» A. Occurs after partial hepatectomy |
63. |
Metastatic calcification |
A. | Causes widespread tissue damage |
B. | Occurs with normal calcium levels |
C. | Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis |
D. | Occurs in hypothyroidism |
E. | Is caused by drinking large quantities of milk |
Answer» C. Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis |
64. |
Mumps virus is a |
A. | Adenovirus |
B. | Herpes virus |
C. | Paramyxovirus |
D. | Pox virus |
E. | Picornavirus |
Answer» C. Paramyxovirus |
65. |
Prothrombotic characteristics of endothelium include |
A. | Plasminogen activator |
B. | Prostacyclin |
C. | von Willebrand factor |
D. | Thrombomodulin |
E. | Heparin like molecules |
Answer» C. von Willebrand factor |
66. |
Regarding giant cell arteritis, which statement is not correct |
A. | Affects medium arteries |
B. | Affects small arteries including vertebral |
C. | Affects small arteries including ophthalmic |
D. | Has an increased prevalence of HLA-DR4 |
E. | Has no gastrointestinal manifestations |
Answer» E. Has no gastrointestinal manifestations |
67. |
All of the following organisms cause a clinical effect via the production of an exotoxin except |
A. | Clostridium tetani |
B. | Staphylococcus aureus |
C. | E. coli |
D. | Pseudomonas aerugenosa |
E. | Vibrio cholera |
Answer» D. Pseudomonas aerugenosa |
68. |
Select the true statement concerning atherosclerosis |
A. | Congenital absence of LDL cholesterol leads to premature atherosclerosis |
B. | Thoracic aorta is more likely to be involved than the abdominal |
C. | Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year |
D. | Fatty streaks are destined to become atherosclerotic plaques |
E. | Endothelial disruption always precedes atheroma development |
Answer» C. Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year |
69. |
Select the false statement concerning atherosclerosis |
A. | Familial hypercholesterolaemia is associated with inadequate hepatic uptake of LDL |
B. | CMV has been detected in human atheromatous plaques |
C. | Fibrous atheromatous plaques are capable of regression |
D. | Foam cells can be considered to be specialised macrophages |
E. | Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis |
Answer» E. Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis |
70. |
An infectious complication of transfusion |
A. | Is most commonly Hepatitis C |
B. | Is most commonly Hepatitis B |
C. | Is rarely transmission of HIV since screening was instituted |
D. | Never includes gonorrhoea or malaria |
E. | Can be clinically apparent mononucleosis in about 7% of cases |
Answer» A. Is most commonly Hepatitis C |
71. |
Which of the following is true concerning rhabdomyolysis |
A. | It is caused by injury to smooth muscle |
B. | Its diagnosis depends on the presence of characteristic physical findings |
C. | The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma |
D. | Renal failure is due to acute glomerular nephritis |
E. | Occurs only in trauma |
Answer» C. The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma |
72. |
Neutrophilia is generally caused by all of the following except |
A. | Inflammatory disease |
B. | Bacterial infection |
C. | Viral infection |
D. | Corticosteroids |
E. | Stress |
Answer» C. Viral infection |
73. |
Which of the following is true of chronic myeloid leukaemia |
A. | Most common leukaemia |
B. | Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level |
C. | Usually occurs in patients less than 40 years old |
D. | Increased WBC count with an abnormal differential |
E. | Rarely associated with the Philadelphia chromosome |
Answer» B. Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level |
74. |
All of the following are cardiac compensatory responses that occur in heart failure except |
A. | Cardiac muscle fibre stretching |
B. | Increased adrenergic receptors on cardiac cells |
C. | Chamber hypertrophy |
D. | Decreased heart rate |
E. | Increased vasopressin levels |
Answer» D. Decreased heart rate |
75. |
Shock in burn patients is primarily due to |
A. | Neurogenic factors |
B. | Hypovolaemia |
C. | Acute erythrocyte haemolysis |
D. | Myocardial depression factor |
E. | All of the above |
Answer» E. All of the above |
76. |
The immediate lethal dose of radiation exposure for humans in a non-mass casualty situation is |
A. | 50 rads |
B. | 150 rads |
C. | 250 rads |
D. | 350 rads |
E. | 450 rads |
Answer» E. 450 rads |
77. |
With regard to apoptosis, which of the following is incorrect |
A. | it may be regarded as a normal physiological process |
B. | it is characterised by chromatin condensation |
C. | it often elicits a strong inflammatory response |
D. | it is the process by which ovaries atrophy in post menopausal women |
E. | it is characterised by cell shrinkage |
Answer» C. it often elicits a strong inflammatory response |
78. |
With regard to the acute inflammatory response, which is the most common mechanism of vascular leakage |
A. | endothelial cell contraction |
B. | junctional retraction |
C. | direct injury |
D. | leukocyte-dependent leakage |
E. | regenerating endothelium |
Answer» A. endothelial cell contraction |
79. |
With regard to cellular injury, all of the following are reversible except |
A. | decreased ATP |
B. | intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes |
C. | decreased Na pump activity |
D. | detachment of ribosomes |
E. | ER swelling |
Answer» B. intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes |
80. |
With regard to the role of complement in the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is incorrect |
A. | C5a is a powerful, chemotactic agent for neutrophils, monocytes and eosinophils |
B. | C5a increases leukocyte adhesion to endothelium by activating leukocytes |
C. | C3a and C5a are called anaphylatoxins because they cause mast cell degranulation |
D. | C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes |
E. | C3 and C5 can be activated in inflammatory exudate by lysosomal enzymes |
Answer» D. C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes |
81. |
Coagulative necrosis |
A. | results from necrosis in which cellular enzymatic digestion predominates over denaturation |
B. | is characterised by a marked leukocytic infiltrate |
C. | is uncommon after myocardial infarction |
D. | usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage |
E. | is not usually seen in association with caseous necrosis |
Answer» D. usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage |
82. |
Granulomatous inflammation |
A. | may sometimes be a component of the acute inflammatory response |
B. | indicates the presence of tuberculosis |
C. | consists, in part, of microscopic aggregates of transformed lymphocytes |
D. | is always associated with the presence of giant cells |
E. | may result from non-immune mechanisms |
Answer» E. may result from non-immune mechanisms |
83. |
Removal of sutures from a wound at day 7 coincides with a wound strength of |
A. | 1% of unwounded skin strength |
B. | 10% of unwounded skin strength |
C. | 50% of unwounded skin strength |
D. | 75% of unwounded skin strength |
E. | 100%, ie. same as unwounded skin |
Answer» B. 10% of unwounded skin strength |
84. |
In a healthy individual over the age of 5 years, lymphocytes are mainly found in |
A. | bone marrow, thymus, spleen |
B. | liver, thymus, spleen |
C. | lymph nodes, spleen, thymus |
D. | bone marrow, spleen, liver |
E. | liver, spleen, pancreas |
Answer» C. lymph nodes, spleen, thymus |
85. |
With regard to natural killer lymphocytes |
A. | constitute less than 5% of blood lymphocytes |
B. | require opsonisation to enable their killing of cells |
C. | have a prime role in defense against parasites |
D. | require prior sensitisation to be effective |
E. | have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells |
Answer» E. have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells |
86. |
With regard to B lymphocytes |
A. | they constitute 50% of circulating lymphocytes |
B. | they are found in germinal centres in the red pulp of the spleen |
C. | they are genetically programmed to recognise specific antigens by means of antigen specific cell surface receptors |
D. | they release chemical mediators when attached to IgE Type I hypersensitivity reactions |
E. | they are not affected by HIV infection |
Answer» C. they are genetically programmed to recognise specific antigens by means of antigen specific cell surface receptors |
87. |
Transplant rejection involves |
A. | Type IV hypersensitivity only |
B. | Type IV and III hypersensitivity only |
C. | Type IV, III and II hypersensitivity only |
D. | Type IV and II hypersensitivity only |
E. | Type II and III hypersensitivity only |
Answer» C. Type IV, III and II hypersensitivity only |
88. |
Major immune abnormalities associated with HIV infection include all of the following except |
A. | hypergammaglobulinaemia |
B. | inversion of CD4-CD8 ratio |
C. | decreased delayed hypersensitivity reactions |
D. | decreased monocyte HLA class II expression |
E. | decreased IL2 and IFNγ production |
Answer» A. hypergammaglobulinaemia |
89. |
Successful immune response to HIV during the acute phase of infection results from |
A. | increase in the CD4+ lymphocyte numbers |
B. | appearance of anti-HIV antibodies |
C. | Type III hypersensitivity reaction |
D. | lymphoid tissue based destruction of infected cells |
E. | development of CD8+ virus specific cytotoxic cells |
Answer» E. development of CD8+ virus specific cytotoxic cells |
90. |
With respect to macrophages, which of the following is not true |
A. | they can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever |
B. | they have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide |
C. | they have oxygen dependent microbicidal activity |
D. | they have cytotoxicity against tumour cells |
E. | they process antigens and act as antigen presenting cells to activate lymphocytes |
Answer» A. they can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever |
91. |
In viral hepatitis |
A. | the majority of cases of acute Hepatitis B infection result in a carrier state, without clinical evidence of disease |
B. | anti HB s appears in the first week of infection |
C. | anti HCV IgG does not confer immunity to Hepatitis C |
D. | the major cause of death from Hepatitis B is hepatocellular carcinoma |
E. | Hepatitis A virus has an outer surface envelope of protein, lipid and carbohydrate |
Answer» C. anti HCV IgG does not confer immunity to Hepatitis C |
92. |
The most common cause of pericarditis is |
A. | SLE |
B. | drug hypersensitivity |
C. | trauma |
D. | post myocardial infarction |
E. | bacterial |
Answer» D. post myocardial infarction |
93. |
All of the following are neoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer except |
A. | Cushing’s syndrome |
B. | syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion |
C. | hypocalcaemia |
D. | carcinoid syndrome |
E. | hypertrophic osteoarthropathy |
Answer» C. hypocalcaemia |
94. |
All of the following are features of rheumatic fever except |
A. | carditis |
B. | subcutaneous nodules |
C. | erythema nodosum |
D. | elevated antistreptolysin |
E. | aschoff bodies in the heart |
Answer» C. erythema nodosum |
95. |
Mediators of septic shock include all of the following except |
A. | IL6 |
B. | C5a |
C. | PAF |
D. | catecholamines |
E. | TNF antibodies |
Answer» E. TNF antibodies |
96. |
Metaplasia is seen in all of the following except |
A. | respiratory epithelium of cigarette smokers |
B. | vitamin A excess |
C. | Barrett’s oesophagitis |
D. | epithelium of a pancreatic duct containing stones |
E. | foci of cell injury |
Answer» B. vitamin A excess |
97. |
The commonest site of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis is |
A. | junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries |
B. | junction of middle cerebral and internal carotid arteries |
C. | bifurcation of the basilar artery |
D. | the middle cerebral artery |
E. | junction of the posterior cerebral and posterior communicating arteries |
Answer» A. junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries |
98. |
The virus causing molluscum contagiosum belongs to the following viral family |
A. | adeno |
B. | herpes |
C. | parvo |
D. | pox |
E. | picorna |
Answer» D. pox |
99. |
Most pulmonary emboli |
A. | cause centrally located pulmonary haemorrhage |
B. | cause pulmonary infarction |
C. | cause acute right heart failure |
D. | are clinically silent |
E. | lead to pulmonary hypertension |
Answer» D. are clinically silent |
100. |
Acute pancreatitis |
A. | may be caused by Helminth infection |
B. | causes hypercalcaemia |
C. | develops in 50% of patients with gallstones |
D. | leads to inhibition of elastase |
E. | involves acinar cell injury as a late event |
Answer» A. may be caused by Helminth infection |
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