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130+ Pathology Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Biology .

51.

Interleukin 1 causes

A. Neutropaenia
B. Decreased sleep
C. Decreased prostaglandin synthesis
D. Increased collagen synthesis
E. Decreased leukocyte adherence
Answer» D. Increased collagen synthesis
52.

Thrombosis is potentiated by all of the following except

A. von Willebrand factor deficiency
B. Protein S deficiency
C. Antithrombin III deficiency
D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia
E. Acute leukaemia
Answer» A. von Willebrand factor deficiency
53.

Acute compensatory mechanisms in shock include all of the following except

A. Baroreceptor reflexes
B. Reverse stress-relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
C. The effects of increased aldosterone secretion
D. Activation of the renin-angiotensin system
E. The central nervous system ischaemic response
Answer» C. The effects of increased aldosterone secretion
54.

The following are primary mediators of type I hypersensitivity reactions except

A. Adenosine
B. Neutrophil chemotactic factor
C. Heparin
D. Platelet activating factor
E. Acid hydrolases
Answer» D. Platelet activating factor
55.

Malignant neoplasms

A. Are independent of hormonal influence
B. Are always composed of homogeneous cell lines
C. Arise from differentiated cells by a process of anaplasia
D. Display abnormal nuclei with pale nucleoli
E. Typically grow more rapidly than benign
Answer» E. Typically grow more rapidly than benign
56.

Regarding metastasis

A. All carcinomas have the ability to metastasise
B. Highly invasive carcinomas rarely metastasise
C. Carcinomas typically spread via lymphatics compared with haematogenous spread
D. Tumour cells develop increased cohesiveness of their cell surface in the formation of cancer cell emboli
E. Cells involved in lymphatic dissemination release degradative enzymes
Answer» E. Cells involved in lymphatic dissemination release degradative enzymes
57.

HIV infection

A. Is caused by rhinovirus
B. Results in increased CD4 and T cell memory
C. Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio
D. Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells
E. Causes a CD4-CD8 ratio close to 2
Answer» C. Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio
58.

A typical feature of AIDS

A. Decreased delayed type hypersensitivity reaction
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Hypogammaglobulinaemia
D. Increase CD4 and T cells
E. Increase chemotaxis and phagocytosis
Answer» A. Decreased delayed type hypersensitivity reaction
59.

In reversible cell injury, all are true except

A. ATP depletion is responsible for acute cellular swelling
B. Can cause myocardial cells to cease contraction within 60 seconds
C. ATP is generated anaerobically from creatine phosphate
D. Mitochondrial swelling and degranulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular damage
E. Is associated with myelin figures
Answer» D. Mitochondrial swelling and degranulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular damage
60.

Metaplasia

A. Is irreversible
B. Is commonly a change from squamous to columnar epithelium
C. An example is the transformation of epithelial cells into chondroblasts to produce cartilage
D. Retinoids may play a role
E. Even if the stimuli is persistent, it is a benign lesion
Answer» D. Retinoids may play a role
61.

In apoptosis

A. It involves physiologic and pathologic stimuli
B. Histologically, it involves coagulation necrosis
C. Its DNA breakdown is random and diffuse
D. Its mechanism involves ATP depletion
E. It involves an inflammatory tissue reaction
Answer» A. It involves physiologic and pathologic stimuli
62.

Hyperplasia

A. Occurs after partial hepatectomy
B. Refers to an increase in the size of cells
C. Is always a pathologic process
D. Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle
E. Usually progresses to cancerous proliferation
Answer» A. Occurs after partial hepatectomy
63.

Metastatic calcification

A. Causes widespread tissue damage
B. Occurs with normal calcium levels
C. Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis
D. Occurs in hypothyroidism
E. Is caused by drinking large quantities of milk
Answer» C. Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis
64.

Mumps virus is a

A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Pox virus
E. Picornavirus
Answer» C. Paramyxovirus
65.

Prothrombotic characteristics of endothelium include

A. Plasminogen activator
B. Prostacyclin
C. von Willebrand factor
D. Thrombomodulin
E. Heparin like molecules
Answer» C. von Willebrand factor
66.

Regarding giant cell arteritis, which statement is not correct

A. Affects medium arteries
B. Affects small arteries including vertebral
C. Affects small arteries including ophthalmic
D. Has an increased prevalence of HLA-DR4
E. Has no gastrointestinal manifestations
Answer» E. Has no gastrointestinal manifestations
67.

All of the following organisms cause a clinical effect via the production of an exotoxin except

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. E. coli
D. Pseudomonas aerugenosa
E. Vibrio cholera
Answer» D. Pseudomonas aerugenosa
68.

Select the true statement concerning atherosclerosis

A. Congenital absence of LDL cholesterol leads to premature atherosclerosis
B. Thoracic aorta is more likely to be involved than the abdominal
C. Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year
D. Fatty streaks are destined to become atherosclerotic plaques
E. Endothelial disruption always precedes atheroma development
Answer» C. Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year
69.

Select the false statement concerning atherosclerosis

A. Familial hypercholesterolaemia is associated with inadequate hepatic uptake of LDL
B. CMV has been detected in human atheromatous plaques
C. Fibrous atheromatous plaques are capable of regression
D. Foam cells can be considered to be specialised macrophages
E. Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis
Answer» E. Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis
70.

An infectious complication of transfusion

A. Is most commonly Hepatitis C
B. Is most commonly Hepatitis B
C. Is rarely transmission of HIV since screening was instituted
D. Never includes gonorrhoea or malaria
E. Can be clinically apparent mononucleosis in about 7% of cases
Answer» A. Is most commonly Hepatitis C
71.

Which of the following is true concerning rhabdomyolysis

A. It is caused by injury to smooth muscle
B. Its diagnosis depends on the presence of characteristic physical findings
C. The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma
D. Renal failure is due to acute glomerular nephritis
E. Occurs only in trauma
Answer» C. The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma
72.

Neutrophilia is generally caused by all of the following except

A. Inflammatory disease
B. Bacterial infection
C. Viral infection
D. Corticosteroids
E. Stress
Answer» C. Viral infection
73.

Which of the following is true of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A. Most common leukaemia
B. Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level
C. Usually occurs in patients less than 40 years old
D. Increased WBC count with an abnormal differential
E. Rarely associated with the Philadelphia chromosome
Answer» B. Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level
74.

All of the following are cardiac compensatory responses that occur in heart failure except

A. Cardiac muscle fibre stretching
B. Increased adrenergic receptors on cardiac cells
C. Chamber hypertrophy
D. Decreased heart rate
E. Increased vasopressin levels
Answer» D. Decreased heart rate
75.

Shock in burn patients is primarily due to

A. Neurogenic factors
B. Hypovolaemia
C. Acute erythrocyte haemolysis
D. Myocardial depression factor
E. All of the above
Answer» E. All of the above
76.

The immediate lethal dose of radiation exposure for humans in a non-mass casualty situation is

A. 50 rads
B. 150 rads
C. 250 rads
D. 350 rads
E. 450 rads
Answer» E. 450 rads
77.

With regard to apoptosis, which of the following is incorrect

A. it may be regarded as a normal physiological process
B. it is characterised by chromatin condensation
C. it often elicits a strong inflammatory response
D. it is the process by which ovaries atrophy in post menopausal women
E. it is characterised by cell shrinkage
Answer» C. it often elicits a strong inflammatory response
78.

With regard to the acute inflammatory response, which is the most common mechanism of vascular leakage

A. endothelial cell contraction
B. junctional retraction
C. direct injury
D. leukocyte-dependent leakage
E. regenerating endothelium
Answer» A. endothelial cell contraction
79.

With regard to cellular injury, all of the following are reversible except

A. decreased ATP
B. intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes
C. decreased Na pump activity
D. detachment of ribosomes
E. ER swelling
Answer» B. intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes
80.

With regard to the role of complement in the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is incorrect

A. C5a is a powerful, chemotactic agent for neutrophils, monocytes and eosinophils
B. C5a increases leukocyte adhesion to endothelium by activating leukocytes
C. C3a and C5a are called anaphylatoxins because they cause mast cell degranulation
D. C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes
E. C3 and C5 can be activated in inflammatory exudate by lysosomal enzymes
Answer» D. C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes
81.

Coagulative necrosis

A. results from necrosis in which cellular enzymatic digestion predominates over denaturation
B. is characterised by a marked leukocytic infiltrate
C. is uncommon after myocardial infarction
D. usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage
E. is not usually seen in association with caseous necrosis
Answer» D. usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage
82.

Granulomatous inflammation

A. may sometimes be a component of the acute inflammatory response
B. indicates the presence of tuberculosis
C. consists, in part, of microscopic aggregates of transformed lymphocytes
D. is always associated with the presence of giant cells
E. may result from non-immune mechanisms
Answer» E. may result from non-immune mechanisms
83.

Removal of sutures from a wound at day 7 coincides with a wound strength of

A. 1% of unwounded skin strength
B. 10% of unwounded skin strength
C. 50% of unwounded skin strength
D. 75% of unwounded skin strength
E. 100%, ie. same as unwounded skin
Answer» B. 10% of unwounded skin strength
84.

In a healthy individual over the age of 5 years, lymphocytes are mainly found in

A. bone marrow, thymus, spleen
B. liver, thymus, spleen
C. lymph nodes, spleen, thymus
D. bone marrow, spleen, liver
E. liver, spleen, pancreas
Answer» C. lymph nodes, spleen, thymus
85.

With regard to natural killer lymphocytes

A. constitute less than 5% of blood lymphocytes
B. require opsonisation to enable their killing of cells
C. have a prime role in defense against parasites
D. require prior sensitisation to be effective
E. have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells
Answer» E. have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells
86.

With regard to B lymphocytes

A. they constitute 50% of circulating lymphocytes
B. they are found in germinal centres in the red pulp of the spleen
C. they are genetically programmed to recognise specific antigens by means of antigen specific cell surface receptors
D. they release chemical mediators when attached to IgE Type I hypersensitivity reactions
E. they are not affected by HIV infection
Answer» C. they are genetically programmed to recognise specific antigens by means of antigen specific cell surface receptors
87.

Transplant rejection involves

A. Type IV hypersensitivity only
B. Type IV and III hypersensitivity only
C. Type IV, III and II hypersensitivity only
D. Type IV and II hypersensitivity only
E. Type II and III hypersensitivity only
Answer» C. Type IV, III and II hypersensitivity only
88.

Major immune abnormalities associated with HIV infection include all of the following except

A. hypergammaglobulinaemia
B. inversion of CD4-CD8 ratio
C. decreased delayed hypersensitivity reactions
D. decreased monocyte HLA class II expression
E. decreased IL2 and IFNγ production
Answer» A. hypergammaglobulinaemia
89.

Successful immune response to HIV during the acute phase of infection results from

A. increase in the CD4+ lymphocyte numbers
B. appearance of anti-HIV antibodies
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. lymphoid tissue based destruction of infected cells
E. development of CD8+ virus specific cytotoxic cells
Answer» E. development of CD8+ virus specific cytotoxic cells
90.

With respect to macrophages, which of the following is not true

A. they can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever
B. they have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide
C. they have oxygen dependent microbicidal activity
D. they have cytotoxicity against tumour cells
E. they process antigens and act as antigen presenting cells to activate lymphocytes
Answer» A. they can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever
91.

In viral hepatitis

A. the majority of cases of acute Hepatitis B infection result in a carrier state, without clinical evidence of disease
B. anti HB s appears in the first week of infection
C. anti HCV IgG does not confer immunity to Hepatitis C
D. the major cause of death from Hepatitis B is hepatocellular carcinoma
E. Hepatitis A virus has an outer surface envelope of protein, lipid and carbohydrate
Answer» C. anti HCV IgG does not confer immunity to Hepatitis C
92.

The most common cause of pericarditis is

A. SLE
B. drug hypersensitivity
C. trauma
D. post myocardial infarction
E. bacterial
Answer» D. post myocardial infarction
93.

All of the following are neoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer except

A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
C. hypocalcaemia
D. carcinoid syndrome
E. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
Answer» C. hypocalcaemia
94.

All of the following are features of rheumatic fever except

A. carditis
B. subcutaneous nodules
C. erythema nodosum
D. elevated antistreptolysin
E. aschoff bodies in the heart
Answer» C. erythema nodosum
95.

Mediators of septic shock include all of the following except

A. IL6
B. C5a
C. PAF
D. catecholamines
E. TNF antibodies
Answer» E. TNF antibodies
96.

Metaplasia is seen in all of the following except

A. respiratory epithelium of cigarette smokers
B. vitamin A excess
C. Barrett’s oesophagitis
D. epithelium of a pancreatic duct containing stones
E. foci of cell injury
Answer» B. vitamin A excess
97.

The commonest site of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis is

A. junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries
B. junction of middle cerebral and internal carotid arteries
C. bifurcation of the basilar artery
D. the middle cerebral artery
E. junction of the posterior cerebral and posterior communicating arteries
Answer» A. junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries
98.

The virus causing molluscum contagiosum belongs to the following viral family

A. adeno
B. herpes
C. parvo
D. pox
E. picorna
Answer» D. pox
99.

Most pulmonary emboli

A. cause centrally located pulmonary haemorrhage
B. cause pulmonary infarction
C. cause acute right heart failure
D. are clinically silent
E. lead to pulmonary hypertension
Answer» D. are clinically silent
100.

Acute pancreatitis

A. may be caused by Helminth infection
B. causes hypercalcaemia
C. develops in 50% of patients with gallstones
D. leads to inhibition of elastase
E. involves acinar cell injury as a late event
Answer» A. may be caused by Helminth infection

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