150+ Process Planning and Cost Estimation Solved MCQs

1.

Which of these is not a part of product planning?

A. identification of opportunities
B. evaluation and prioritizing opportunities
C. allocation of resources and time determination
D. finalizing process
Answer» D. finalizing process
Explanation: no such case is part of product planning.
2.

How does marketers study customers and products for the generation of ideas?

A. surveys
B. focus groups
C. interviews
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: all of these are part of idea generation.
3.

Which of these does not account for Passive channels fo opportunity funnels?

A. suggestion lines
B. bug-report web pages
C. monitoring trends
D. awards for outstanding product ideas
Answer» C. monitoring trends
Explanation: monitoring trends are for active channels.
4.

Which of these is false about the opportunity statement?

A. opportunity statement collects product ideas into opportunity funnel
B. opportunity statement is brief description of product development idea
C. opportunity statements for derivative and maintenance products summarize mass changes
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. opportunity statement collects product ideas into opportunity funnel
Explanation: product ideas are collected by opportunity funnel are stated in the opportunity statement and recorded database.
5.

Decisions through which an organization follows development?

A. competitive strategy
B. accountability
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. competitive strategy
Explanation: it is a procedure followed for development.
6.

What are the factors Profitability depends on?

A. eventual cost of product for development and marketing
B. release of competitive product
C. concern for target markets
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: targeted markets are concerned for profitability.
7.

The expected qualities of a product are

A. it satisfies the needs and expectations of the customer
B. it has a pleasing appearance and handles well
C. it has high reliability and functions safely over its intended life
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: generally, however, a high- quality product is considered to have at least the following characteristics:
8.

The life cycle of a product includes

A. extraction of natural resources
B. processing of raw materials
C. manufacturing of products
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: the life cycle involves consecutive and interlinked stages of a product or a service, from the very beginning to its disposal or recycling, and includes the following:
9.

Life-cycle engineering is also called

A. green design
B. expensive design
C. easy design
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. green design
Explanation: the major aim of life-cycle engineering (lce) is to consider reusing and recycling the components of a product, beginning with the earliest stage: product design. life-cycle engineering is also called green design or green engineering.
10.

Sustainable manufacturing is required for

A. conserving resources
B. proper maintenance
C. reuse
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: the concept of sustainable manufacturing emphasizes the need for conserving resources, particularly through proper maintenance and reuse.
11.

The mechanical properties of good product material are

A. strength
B. toughness
C. ductility
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: mechanical properties include strength, toughness, ductility, stiffness, hardness, and resistance to fatigue, creep, and impact.
12.

The physical properties of good product material are

A. density
B. melting point
C. specific heat
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: physical properties include density, melting point, specific heat, thermal and electrical conductivity, thermal expansion, and magnetic properties.
13.

The chemical properties of good product material are

A. oxidation
B. corrosion
C. surface treatment
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: chemical properties of primary concern in manufacturing are susceptibility to oxidation and corrosion and to the various surface-treatment processes.
14.

Considerations of costing systems are

A. life cycle costs
B. machine usage
C. cost of purchasing machinery
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: costing systems, also called cost justification, typically include the following considerations: (a) intangible benefits of quality improvements and inventory reduction, (b) life-cycle costs, (c) machine usage, (d) cost of purchasing machinery compared with that of leasing it,
15.

Which manufacturing process includes the powder metallurgy?

A. casting
B. forming and shaping
C. machining
D. joining
Answer» B. forming and shaping
Explanation: forming and shaping process includes powder metallurgy. powder metallurgy is a process in which material or shapes are made from or by using metal powders.
16.

Which of the following is not included in forming and shaping process?

A. rolling
B. forging
C. sheet forming
D. broaching
Answer» D. broaching
Explanation: only rolling, forging and sheet forming are included in forming and shaping process. broaching is included in fabrication process.
17.

Expendable mold and permanent mold are the parts of manufacturing process.

A. machining
B. casting
C. none of the mentioned
D. joining
Answer» B. casting
Explanation: in casting, we prepare a mould in which we pour liquid metal. then we solidify the metal and make the product of desired shape with the help of pattern.
18.

Casting includes grinding process.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: this is false. casting doesn’t includes grinding process. machining process includes grinding process.
19.

Brazing is a type of metal joining process.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: it is a metal joining process. it joints the metal by melting and flowing a filler metal into the joint. the adjoining metal has higher melting point compare to filler metal.
20.

Which of the following processes are included in finishing?

A. honing and welding
B. polishing and lapping
C. coating and milling
D. molding and plating
Answer» B. polishing and lapping
Explanation: coating and plating are included in finishing .welding is included in joining, molding is included in casting and milling is included in machining. rest all( mentioned ) are included in finishing process.
21.

Machining process deals with drawing.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: this is false. forming and shaping type process include the process like drawing.
22.

Which of the following is not the type of finishing process?

A. diffusion bonding
B. burnishing
C. both diffusion bonding and burnishing
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. diffusion bonding
Explanation: only burnishing is an example of finishing process. diffusion type bonding is included in the of process of joining.
23.

Which of the following is not the type of joining process?

A. adhesive bonding
B. brazing
C. soldering
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: adhesive bonding, brazing and soldering all are thetypes of joining process. in adhesive bonding, adhesive are used to manufacture an assembly. brazing and soldering are also the type of manufacturing process.
24.

Which of the following is the type of permanent joining process?

A. welding
B. soldering
C. both welding and soldering
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. both welding and soldering
Explanation: in welding and soldering, once the join has made, we have to break the joint to get different part. so, both welding and soldering are known as permanent joining process.
25.

Which of the following is the type of temporary joining process?

A. brazing
B. mechanical joining
C. both brazing and mechanical joining
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. mechanical joining
Explanation: brazing is the one type of permanent joining process and mechanical joining is the one type of temporary joining process because we can remove the joint with the help of equipments like some type of bolts and so on. breaking of joint is not necessary in this case.
26.

In type of manufacturing process, material is wasted. It is in the form of chips.

A. machining process
B. casting process
C. joining process
D. forming and shaping process
Answer» A. machining process
Explanation: in machining process, some raw material is wasted in or in order to perform different operations like drilling, turning etc.
27.

Which of the following is included in machining process?

A. extrusion
B. soldering
C. drilling
D. coating
Answer» C. drilling
Explanation: drilling is included in machining process. for drilling, the drill is rotated with a downward pressure causing the tool to penetrate into the material.
28.

With the use of Jigs and fixture rate of production will

A. increase
B. decrease
C. remains same
D. jigs are not used in any production process
Answer» A. increase
Explanation: total production increase with the use of jigs and fixture. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for the bigger work piece.
29.

Jigs and fixture increases the accuracy of the parts.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: accuracy of parts increases by use of jigs and fixture. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for the bigger work piece.
30.

Jigs And fixture are used to provide interchangeability.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: interchangeability of parts increases by use of jigs and fixture. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for the bigger work piece.
31.

With the use of Jigs and fixture

A. labour cost decreases
B. labour cost increases
C. labour cost decreases
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. labour cost decreases
Explanation: less skilled labour required. interchangeability of parts increases by use of jigs and fixture. jigs and fixture increases accuracy. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for bigger work piece.
32.

Which of the following is not correct about fixture?

A. it is used to hold the work
B. it is used to position the work the work
C. it assures high accuracy of parts
D. it is used to guide the cutting tool
Answer» D. it is used to guide the cutting tool
Explanation: fixture do not guide cutting tool. jigs and fixture increases accuracy. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for bigger work piece.
33.

Which of the following is not correct about jig?

A. it is used to hold the work
B. it is used to position the work the work
C. it is used to guide the cutting tool
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: all of the mentioned are correct about jigs. jigs and fixture increases accuracy. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for bigger work piece.
34.

In which of the following operation jigs are preferred over fixture?

A. drilling
B. turning
C. milling
D. grinding
Answer» A. drilling
Explanation: jigs and fixture increases accuracy. jigs are holding device and fixture are generally used for bigger work piece. jigs are preferred over fixture in drilling because they also help in guidance of tool.
35.

Number of degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer» B. 12
Explanation: work piece has 16 degree of freedom. it can have 16 different movements.
36.

Land use, transportation and road network plans are                      

A. inter linked
B. intra linked
C. not linked
D. depends on the network
Answer» A. inter linked
Explanation: land use, transportation and road network plans are inter linked to each other and they are inseparable.
37.

The first stage in the function of traffic engineering department is?

A. planning and design
B. collection of data
C. investigations
D. finance
Answer» B. collection of data
Explanation: the first stage in the function of the traffic engineering department is a collection of data followed by analysis and design.
38.

Traffic forecast is not influenced by

A. gdp
B. industrial output
C. population
D. weather
Answer» D. weather
Explanation: weather cannot influence the traffic forecast, as it is not related to traffic engineering, the remaining directly or indirectly are related to the traffic.
39.

The NHDP are being undertaken by private companies on the basis of                      

A. profit
B. revenue
C. bot
D. commission basis
Answer» C. bot
Explanation: in india mostly private and govt. sectors follow bot which means build operate transfer, it is built by a private firm and later transferred to govt.
40.

The traffic will increase if the                      

A. price of fuel decreases
B. price of vehicles decreases
C. price of fuel decreases
D. price of vehicles decreases
Answer» B. price of vehicles decreases
Explanation: the traffic increases if the prices of vehicle decreases, price of fuel may increase and decrease, but if the price of the vehicle decreases then the traffic increases.
41.

The process of working out the cost per unit of each item is known as                    

A. work
B. sheet
C. data
D. analysis
Answer» C. data
Explanation: the preparation of a detailed estimate comprises of working out quantities of different items of work and then determining the cost of each item. the
42.

While fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour needed for one unit of an item are strictly per

A. special data book
B. standard data book
C. special data record
D. specific data record
Answer» B. standard data book
Explanation: while fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour needed for one unit of an item are strictly per the standard data book. however, the rates of labour and materials are obtained from the current standard scheduled of rates.
43.

In the case of works which require some special types of equipment, an amount of

A. 1-2
B. 5-9
C. 12-18
D. 16-20
Answer» A. 1-2
Explanation: in the case of works that require some special types of equipment, an amount of 1-2 percent of the estimated cost is given. while preparing a detailed estimate, it is also important to select a suitable site of work to reduce damage during the loading and unloading of materials.
44.

Which of the following is not a method used for preparing approximate estimates?

A. cubical contents method
B. unit base method
C. plinth area method
D. cylindrical base method
Answer» D. cylindrical base method
Explanation: there are various methods used for preparing approximate estimates. these are the plinth area method, unit base method
45.

In the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the multiplication of                  

A. plinth length and rate
B. plinth breadth and rate
C. plinth area and plinth area rate
D. plinth volume and plinth length rate
Answer» C. plinth area and plinth area rate
Explanation: in the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the multiplication of plinth area and plinth area rate. this area is calculated by multiplying the length and the breadth.
46.

As per IS 3861-1966, which of the following areas should not be included while calculating the plinth area of a building?

A. porches of non-cantilever type
B. area of barsati at terrace level
C. area of walls at floor level
D. area of lofts
Answer» D. area of lofts
Explanation: as per is 3861-1966, the areas which should be included while calculating the plinth area of a building are porches of non-cantilever type, area of barsati at terrace level, area of walls at floor level, etc.
47.

For the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is more accurate than the unit base method and plinth area method.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: for the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is more accurate than the unit base method and plinth area method. cubical
48.

In the cubical contents method, the cost of a structure is computed by the multiplication of total cubic contents and                

A. area of building
B. volume of building
C. local cubic rate
D. length of building
Answer» C. local cubic rate
Explanation: the cost of a structure in the cubical contents method is determined by the multiplication of total cubic contents with the local cubic rate. therefore, the cost of the building is calculated by multiplying the volume of buildings with the rate per unit volume.
49.

Estimating is the technique of calculating the various quantities and is needed for controlling the expenditure during the

A. special data book
B. standard data book
C. special data record
D. specific data record
Answer» B. standard data book
Explanation: while fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour needed for one unit of an item are strictly per the standard data book. however, the rates of labour and materials are obtained from the current standard scheduled of rates.
50.

is required for preliminary studies of various aspects of a work or project.

A. supplementary estimate
B. plinth area estimate
C. revised estimate
D. abstract estimate
Answer» D. abstract estimate
Explanation: to decide the financial position and policy for administrative sanction by the competent administrative authority. in case of commercial projects as irrigation projects as irrigation projects, residential building projects and similar projects which earn revenue income, the probable income may be worked out.
51.

Approximate cost of a hostel building for 100 students @Rs.10000/- per student works out as Rs. 10 lakhs.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: approx. cost of a bed hospital
52.

Approximate cost of sewerage project for a population of one [email protected] Rs. 10/- head works out as Rs. 10 lakh.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: approximate cost of sewerage project for a population of one
53.

Cube rate estimate is less accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate as the height of the building is also compared.

A. false
B. true
Answer» B. true
Explanation: cube rate estimate is most accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate as the height of the building is also compared.
54.

For storeyed building plinth area estimate is not prepared for each storey separately.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: for storeyed building plinth area estimate is prepared for each storey separately.
55.

is prepared on the basis of plinth area of building, the rate being deducted from the cost of similar building having similar specification, heights and construction, in the locality.

A. cube rate estimate
B. supplementary estimate
C. maintenance estimate
D. plinth area estimate
Answer» D. plinth area estimate
Explanation: plinth area estimate is calculated by finding the plinth area of the building and multiplying by the plinth area rate. the plinth area should be calculated for the covered area by taking external dimension of the building at the floor level.
56.

In this method approx. total length of walls is found in running metre and this total length multiplied by the rate per running metre of wall gives a fairly accurate cost.

A. annual repair
B. item rate estimate
C. approximate quantity method estimate
D. cubical content estimate
Answer» C. approximate quantity method estimate
Explanation: for this method the structure may be divided into two parts viz. foundation including plinth and superstructure.
57.

estimate is a detailed estimate and is prepared to maintain the structure or work in proper order and safe condition.

A. supplementary and revised estimate
B. maintenance estimate
C. item rate estimate
D. revised estimate
Answer» B. maintenance estimate
Explanation: for building; this includes white washing, colour washing, painting, minor repairs etc. for road works the a.r. estimate provides for patch repairing, renewals, repair of culverts, etc.
58.

The term is used to denote a procedure of costing or valuing an item of work on the basis of actual labourers and materials required.

A. prime cost
B. hour-work
C. day-work
D. sub-work
Answer» C. day-work
Explanation: certain items of work which cannot be measured as- a design in the plaster work, front architectural finish of a building, work under water, etc. are valued and paid by ‘day work’. in such cases the schedule of rates of materials and different classes of labourers likely to be engaged in th work should be included in the tender and in contract agreement.
59.

Which of the following is a type of forging?

A. open die
B. closed die
C. impression dies
D. hold dies
Answer» D. hold dies
Explanation: there are basically three methods (or processes) to make a forged part,
60.

In which of the following forging metal is kept in the lower die?

A. open die
B. closed die
C. impression dies
D. hold dies
Answer» A. open die
Explanation: when shaping a solid piece of metal by closed die forging, the die is initially open. the work piece is placed in the lower die half, and the top die is then brought down to engage with the work piece the
61.

In which of the forging process metal is kept in between a pair of dies and a gutter is provided in the lower die?

A. open die
B. closed die
C. impression dies
D. hold dies
Answer» B. closed die
Explanation: in closed die forging process metal is kept in between a pair of dies and a gutter is provided in the lower die. in impression die forging process metal is kept in between a pair of dies and no gutter is provided in the lower die.
62.

The extra metal which settles down in the gutter is known as?

A. flash
B. slag
C. flux
D. barrelling
Answer» A. flash
Explanation: in impression die forging, the die surfaces contain a shape that is given to the work piece during compression, thus restricting the metal flow significantly. there is some extra deformed material outside the die impression which is called as flash. this will be trimmed off later.
63.

In which of the following forging process no flash is formed?

A. open die
B. closed die
C. impression dies
D. hold dies
Answer» B. closed die
Explanation: in flashless forging, the work piece is fully restricted within the die and no flash is produced. the amount of initial work piece used must be controlled accurately so that it matches the volume of the die cavity.
64.

Cogging, which is also called as drawing out, is basically?

A. open die forging operation
B. closed die forging operation
C. impression dies forging operation
D. hold die forging operation
Answer» A. open die forging operation
Explanation: cogging is an open die forging process in which flat or slightly contoured die are employed to compress a work piece, reducing its thickness and increasing its length.
65.

In rolling operation, the roll rotates with surface velocity?

A. exceeding the speed of incoming metal
B. lower than the speed of incoming metal
C. equal to speed of the incoming metal
D. very higher than the speed of incoming metal
Answer» C. equal to speed of the incoming metal
Explanation: the rolls rotate with a surface velocity exceeding the speed of the incoming metal, friction along the contact interface acts to propel the metal forward. the metal is squeezed and elongated and usually changed in cross section.
66.

A round billet made of 70-30 brass is extruded at a temperature of 675°C. The billet diameter is 125 mm, and the diameter of the extrusion is 50 mm. Calculate the extrusion force required.

A. 4 mn
B. 5 mn
C. 5.6 mn
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. 5.6 mn
Explanation: the extrusion force is calculated using
67.

In which type of extrusion, a billet is placed in a chamber?

A. forward
B. indirect
C. hydrostatic
D. impact
Answer» A. forward
Explanation: in forward extrusion, a billet is placed in a chamber and forced through a die opening by a hydraulically driven ram. the die opening may be round, or it may have various shapes, depending on the desired profile.
68.

In which type of extrusion, the die moves toward the unextruded billet?

A. forward
B. indirect
C. hydrostatic
D. impact
Answer» B. indirect
Explanation: in indirect extrusion, (also called reverse, inverted, or backward extrusion), the die moves toward the unextruded billet. indirect extrusion has the advantage of having no billet-container friction, since there is no relative motion.
69.

In which type of extrusion, the billet is smaller in diameter than the chamber?

A. forward
B. indirect
C. hydrostatic
D. impact
Answer» C. hydrostatic
Explanation: in hydrostatic extrusion, the billet is smaller in diameter than the chamber
70.

Scope of automation in foundry process is

A. low
B. high
C. minimum
D. maximum
Answer» A. low
Explanation: the foundry processes are extensively laborious while compared to other manufacturing processes. the productivity when compared to efforts is low. the processes can be mechanized but not automated.
71.

Which of the following is an advantage of the Green sand molding process used in a foundry?

A. appropriate for long production run
B. very low cost process
C. sand is reusable
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: the green sand has an adequate amount of water which is lost during the process but it can be restored by adding the same and it is fit for reusing. this enables it
72.

The energy consumption is a drawback of the foundry.

A. high
B. optimum
C. intensive
D. low
Answer» A. high
Explanation: in a foundry, the sources of energy used are large in number. the major drawback of the foundry is that the energy consumption in terms of material, refractories and metal is very high.
73.

Majority parts in transportation vehicles are made by the foundry processes.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: cast metal parts account for more than 90% of an automobile engine and for more than 50% of the total weight of the tractor. thus, most of the parts are made of cast iron are manufactured in foundries.
74.

defects in castings cannot be identified easily.

A. internal
B. external
C. chemical
D. metallic
Answer» A. internal
Explanation: the casting is usually made in bulk in foundries and it is not visible to the naked eyes. the castings have to be sent for x-ray testing and such kind of test to find out the internal defects. identifying internal defects is a tough task in foundries.
75.

The directional properties are imparted to the castings made in foundries.

A. single
B. double
C. spherical
D. multiple
Answer» A. single
Explanation: when the pouring takes place in the foundry, the uniform melting of the metal is ensured so that the casting prepared has adequate strength. this imparts a uniform and a single directionality to the castings that are produced and provides better vibration damping capacity to the cast parts.
76.

In the foundry, the metal joining process is employed.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: the foundry produces the castings that are in a single piece. even if the pattern of the first and second half is different, it produces the casting in a single piece. hence, the metal joining process is eliminated in the foundry.
77.

Foundry process is used to make intricate parts.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: the foundry process is suitable for both small and large components. it gives a high rate of production, small dimensional
78.

is the speed at which the metal is removed by the tool from the work piece.

A. feed
B. cutting speed
C. depth of cut
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. cutting speed
Explanation: it can be easily understood by looking at the definition of the cutting speed. cutting speed is a peripheral speed of the work.
79.

Which of the following represents the formula for cutting speed? cs =cutting speed, D= diameter of work, N= rpm.

A. cs = (3.14*d*n)
B. cs = (d*n)
C. cs = (3.14*d)/n
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. cs = (3.14*d*n)
Explanation: cs = (3.14*d*n) – this is the formula for finding the cutting speed.
80.

is the distance the tool advances for each revolution of the work.

A. feed
B. depth of cut
C. metal removal rate
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. feed
Explanation: the feed of a cutting tool in a lathe work is the distance the tool advances for each revolution of the work. increased feed reduces the cutting time.
81.

Which of the following is the unit of the feed?

A. mm / minute
B. mm / revolution
C. mm * minute
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. mm / revolution
Explanation: mm / revolution is the right unit for feed. in british system it is expressed in inches per revolution.
82.

The depth of cut is the distance measured from the machined surface to the surface of the work piece, which is uncut.

A. parallel
B. perpendicular
C. at 45 degree
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. perpendicular
Explanation: it is the perpendicular distance measured from the machined surface to the surface of the work piece, which is uncut.
83.

Which of the following represents the unit of metal removal rate?

A. mm/revolution
B. mm*mm/revolution
C. mm*mm*mm/revolution
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. mm*mm*mm/revolution
Explanation: mm*mm*mm / revolution is the right unit for the metal removal rate. if we put the units of cutting speed, depth of cut
84.

Which of the following represents the unit for machining time?

A. mm / minute
B. minute / revolution
C. minute
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. minute
Explanation: machining time is simply a time so its unit must be matched with time’s unit. minute is the right unit for machining time.
85.

For general purposes, ratio of the depth of cut to the feed varies from           

A. 10:1
B. 1:10
C. 100:1
D. 1:100
Answer» A. 10:1
Explanation: the ratio varies from 10:1. the depth of cut varies inversely as the cutting speed.
86.

Which of the following is used to drive the work piece?

A. carriers
B. catch plates
C. both carriers and catch plates
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. both carriers and catch plates
Explanation: work piece can be driven by using both of these. catch plates are either screwed or bolted to the nose of the tailstock spindle while the carriers consists of a cast iron or forged steel body.
87.

Drilling is performed by holding the work by a chuck.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: it can be seen from the working of lathe operations. several types of chucks are there like 4 jaw chuck, 3 jaw chuck and so on.
88.

Knurling can be performed by special attachments.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: this is false. knurling can be done by a chuck on holding work piece between centres.
89.

Grinding can be performed by             

A. using faceplates or angle plates
B. using chucks
C. special attachments
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. special attachments
Explanation: grinding can be done by special attachments. grinding is a type of machining using an abrasive type of wheel as the cutting tool.
90.

Taper boring and the under boring can be performed by             

A. centers
B. face plates or angle plates
C. special attachments
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. face plates or angle plates
Explanation: both types of plates can be used for this purpose. a face plate consists of a circular disk bored out and threaded to sit the nose of the lathe spindle while angel plate
91.

Milling can be performed by            

A. centres
B. face plates or angel plates
C. chucks
D. special attachments
Answer» D. special attachments
Explanation: milling can be performed by special attachments. milling machine is a machine tool that removes metal as the work is fed against a rotating multipoint cutter.
92.

Spinning can be done by           

A. centres
B. face plates or angle plates
C. special attachments
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. centres
Explanation: this operation can be done by using centres. spining winding is also done by this method.
93.

Eccentric turning can be performed by using special attachments.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: this is false. eccentric type of turning can be performed by using centres or chucks.
94.

Shaping can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. vertical
Explanation: vertical milling machines are
95.

Form cutting can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. horizontal
Explanation: form cutting can be performed more effectively by horizontal milling machine. the spindle in the horizontal milling machine is mounted on the horizontal arbor above table.
96.

Slab milling can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. horizontal
Explanation: slab milling can be performed more effectively by horizontal milling machine. this slab mill is also used in gang milling.
97.

Drilling can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. vertical
Explanation: in vertical milling, the workpiece is held by a horizontal table and this horizontal table rotates about a vertical axis. there are none-rotating tools which can
98.

Boring can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. vertical
Explanation: vertical boring milling is more effectively as it has wide application in ring gear blanks, turbine casting and locomotive tires and so on.
99.

Dovetailing can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. vertical
Explanation: as per the classification of milling operations. dovetailing means joint something like link together with the help of dovetail.
100.

Angular milling can be performed more effectively by milling machine.

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. can’t say anything
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. can’t say anything
Explanation: angular milling is a type of milling that mills flat surfaces which are neither parallel or perpendicular to the axis of milling cutter. it is performed more accurately by both milling machines: horizontal and vertical.
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