80+ MicroEconomics, Theory and Applications 1 Solved MCQs

1.

The law of demand states that an increase in the price of a good:

A. increases the supply of that good.
B. decreases the quantity demanded for that good.
C. increases the quantity supplied of that good.
D. none of these answers.
Answer» B. decreases the quantity demanded for that good.
2.

The law of supply states that an increase in the price of a good:

A. none of these answers.
B. increases the quantity supplied of that good.
C. decreases the demand for that good.
D. decreases the quantity demanded for that good.
Answer» B. increases the quantity supplied of that good.
3.

If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for camping equipment, then camping equipment is:

A. a normal good.
B. an inferior good.
C. a substitute good
D. a complementary good.
Answer» C. a substitute good
4.

Which of the following shifts the demand for watches to the right?

A. an increase in the price of watches
B. none of these answers
C. a decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches are complements
D. a decrease in consumer incomes if watches are a normal good
Answer» C. a decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches are complements
5.

An inferior good is one for which an increase in income causes a(n)

A. decrease in supply.
B. increase in demand.
C. increase in supply.
D. decrease in demand.
Answer» D. decrease in demand.
6.

If a small percentage increase in the price of a good greatly reduces the quantity demanded for that good, the demand for that good is

A. income inelastic.
B. price inelastic.
C. price elastic.
D. unit price elastic.
Answer» C. price elastic.
7.

The price elasticity of demand is defined as

A. the percentage change in the quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in income.
B. the percentage change in income divided by the percentage change in the quantity demanded.
C. the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
D. the percentage change in price of a good divided by the percentage change in the quantity demanded of that good.
Answer» C. the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
8.

In general, a flatter demand curve is more likely to be:

A. price elastic
B. unit price elastic
C. none of these answers
D. price inelastic.
Answer» A. price elastic
9.

In general, a steeper supply curve is more likely to be

A. price elastic
B. none of these answers
C. unit price elastic
D. price inelastic
Answer» D. price inelastic
10.

Which of the following would cause a demand curve for a good to be price inelastic?

A. the good is a luxury
B. there are a great number of substitutes for the good
C. the good is a necessity
D. the good is an inferior good
Answer» C. the good is a necessity
11.

If the cross-price elasticity between two goods is negative, the two goods are likely to be:

A. substitutes
B. complements
C. necessities
D. luxuries
Answer» B. complements
12.

If there is excess capacity in a production facility, it is likely that the firm’s supply curve is:

A. price inelastic
B. none of these answers
C. unit price elastic
D. price elastic
Answer» D. price elastic
13.

If the income elasticity of demand for a good is negative, it must be:

A. an elastic good
B. an inferior good
C. a normal good
D. a luxury good
Answer» B. an inferior good
14.

Which of the following would decrease the supply of wheat?

A. a decrease in the price of pesticides
B. an increase in the demand for wheat
C. a rise in the price of wheat
D. an increase in the price of corn
Answer» D. an increase in the price of corn
15.

Which of the following defines marginal utility?

A. the change in total utility divided by the price of a product
B. the maximum amount of satisfaction from consuming a product
C. the total satisfaction received from consuming as much of the product that isavailable for consumption
D. the additional satisfaction received from consuming one more unit of a product
Answer» D. the additional satisfaction received from consuming one more unit of a product
16.

Which best expresses the law of diminishing marginal utility?

A. the more consumption of a product, the smaller is the total and marginal utilityfrom the consumption.
B. the less consumption of a product, the greater is the total and marginal utilityof the consumption.
C. the more consumption of a product, the smaller is the marginal utility fromconsuming an additional unit.
D. the more consumption of a product, the smaller is the total and marginal utilityfrom the consumption.
Answer» C. the more consumption of a product, the smaller is the marginal utility fromconsuming an additional unit.
17.

Which situation is consistent with the law of diminishing marginal utility?

A. the more cake henry eats, the more he enjoys another slice.
B. the more cake henry eats, the less he enjoys another slice.
C. henry’s marginal utility from eating cake becomes positive after eating threeslices.
D. henry’s marginal utility from eating cake reaches a maximum when total utilityis zero.
Answer» B. the more cake henry eats, the less he enjoys another slice.
18.

A consumer with a fixed income will maximize utility when each good is purchased in amounts such that the:

A. total utility is the same for each good.
B. marginal utility of each good is maximized.
C. marginal utility per dollar spent is the same for all goods.
D. marginal utility per dollar spent is maximized for each good.
Answer» C. marginal utility per dollar spent is the same for all goods.
19.

If a rational consumer is in equilibrium, then:

A. the marginal utility obtained from one product is equal to the marginal utility obtained from any other product.
B. a reallocation of income would increase the consumer’s total utility.
C. the marginal utility per last dollar spent is the same for all goods consumed.
D. total utility becomes zero.
Answer» C. the marginal utility per last dollar spent is the same for all goods consumed.
20.

If you know that the marginal utility per rupees spent on product Alpha is less than the marginal utility per rupees spent on product Beta, consumers who spend all their income on these two products can:

A. maximize total utility but not marginal utility.
B. maximize marginal utility but not total utility.
C. increase total utility by buying more of beta and less of alpha.
D. increase total utility by buying more of alpha and less of beta.
Answer» C. increase total utility by buying more of beta and less of alpha.
21.

A consumer is in equilibrium and is spending income in such a way that the marginal utility of product X is 40 units and Y is 16 units. The unit price of X is Rs.5. The price of Y is:

A. rs.1 per unit.
B. rs.2 per unit.
C. rs.3 per unit.
D. rs.4 per unit.
Answer» B. rs.2 per unit.
22.

Which is an explanation for why the demand curve is down sloping?

A. normal goods
B. the law of supply
C. the law of diminishing marginal utility
D. the law of increasing opportunity cost
Answer» C. the law of diminishing marginal utility
23.

As If a few large firms dominate an industry the market is known as:

A. monopolistic competition
B. competitively monopolistic
C. duopoly
D. oligopoly
Answer» D. oligopoly
24.

In a cartel, member firms may be given a fixed amount to produce. This amount is called

A. limitless
B. factor
C. quota
D. quotient
Answer» C. quota
25.

The Kinked Demand Curve theory assumes:

A. firms co-operate
B. firms act as part of a cartel
C. firms are competitive with each other
D. firms are not profit maximisers
Answer» C. firms are competitive with each other
26.

In Game Theory:

A. firms are always assumed to act independently
B. firms are always assumed to cooperate with each other
C. firms always collude as part of a cartel
D. firms consider the actions of others before deciding what to do
Answer» D. firms consider the actions of others before deciding what to do
27.

In the Kinked Demand Curve theory:

A. the marginal revenue curve is perfectly horizontal
B. demand is always price inelastic
C. demand is always price elastic
D. non price competition is likely
Answer» D. non price competition is likely
28.

In oligopoly:

A. the largest four firms are likely to have a small market share
B. the price is likely to equal marginal revenue
C. firms will continue to produce in the long run if price is less than average cost
D. firms may collude or compete depending on their assumptions about their competitors
Answer» D. firms may collude or compete depending on their assumptions about their competitors
29.

A model of Game Theory of oligopoly is known as the:

A. prisoner\s dilemma
B. monopoly cell
C. jailhouse sentence
D. jury box
Answer» A. prisoner\s dilemma
30.

In a cartel:

A. firms compete against each other
B. price wars are common
C. firms use price to win market share from competitors
D. firms collude
Answer» D. firms collude
31.

In cartels

A. each individual firm profit maximizes
B. there may be an incentive to cheat
C. the industry as a whole is loss making
D. there is no need to police agreements
Answer» B. there may be an incentive to cheat
32.

A firm that considers the potential reactions of its competitors when it makes a decision

A. is referred to as a price leader
B. is engaged in strategic behaviour
C. is engaged in collusion
D. is referred to as a barometric firm
Answer» B. is engaged in strategic behaviour
33.

Which of the following is an example of strategic behaviour?

A. a firm builds excess capacity to discourage the entry of competitors
B. a firm adopts the pricing behaviour of a dominant firm under the assumption that other firms will do likewise
C. firms in an industry increase advertising expenditures to avoid losing market share
D. all of the above are examples of strategic behaviour
Answer» D. all of the above are examples of strategic behaviour
34.

Which one of the following is a part of every game theory model?

A. players
B. payoffs
C. probabilities
D. strategies
Answer» D. strategies
35.

In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is referred to as

A. the dominant strategy
B. the game-winning choice
C. super optimal
D. a gonzo selection
Answer» A. the dominant strategy
36.

Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?

A. all firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy
B. all firms have a dominant strategy, but only some choose to follow it
C. all firms have a dominant strategy, and none choose it
D. none of the above is correct
Answer» A. all firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy
37.

A prisoners’ dilemma is a game with all of the following characteristics except one. Which one is present in a prisoners’ dilemma?

A. players cooperate in arriving at their strategies
B. both players have a dominant strategy
C. both players would be better off if neither chose their dominant strategy
D. the payoff from a strategy depends on the choice made by the other player
Answer» A. players cooperate in arriving at their strategies
38.

Which of the following legal restrictions, if enforced effectively, would be likely to solve a prisoners’ dilemma type of problem for the firms involved?

A. a law that prevents a cartel from enforcing rules against cheating
B. a law that makes it illegal for oligopolists to engage in collusion
C. a law that prohibits firms in an industry from advertising their services
D. all of the above would be likely to solve a prisoners\ dilemma for the firms
Answer» C. a law that prohibits firms in an industry from advertising their services
39.

Until recently, medical doctors and lawyers have been prohibited from engaging in competitive advertising. If the prisoners’ dilemma applies to this situation, then the presence of this restriction would be likely to

A. increase profits earned by individuals in these professions
B. reduce profits earned by individuals in these professions
C. have no effect on the profits earned by individuals in these professions
D. increase the profits of some and reduce the profits of other individuals in these professions
Answer» A. increase profits earned by individuals in these professions
40.

Which one of the following conditions is required for the success of a tit-for-tat strategy?

A. demand and cost conditions must change frequently and unpredictably
B. the number of oligopolists in the industry must be relatively small
C. the game can be repeated only a small number of times
D. firms must be unable to detect the behaviour of their competitors
Answer» B. the number of oligopolists in the industry must be relatively small
41.

An oligopolist may engage in short-run behaviour that results in lower profits if

A. it leads to a nash equilibrium
B. it is a dominant strategy
C. it is not involved in a repeated game
D. it lends credibility to the firm\s threats
Answer» D. it lends credibility to the firm\s threats
42.

A firm may decide to increase its scale so that it has excess production capacity because, by doing so, it is able to

A. minimize its average cost of production
B. establish a credible deterrent to the entry of competing firms
C. take advantage of a dominant strategy in a prisoners’ dilemma
D. attain a nash equilibrium and avoid repeated games
Answer» B. establish a credible deterrent to the entry of competing firms
43.

Game theory is concerned with

A. predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette
B. the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations
C. utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets
D. the migration patterns of caribou in alaska
Answer» B. the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations
44.

Which of the following is an example of a game theory strategy?

A. you scratch my back and i’ll scratch yours
B. if the shoe fits, wear it
C. monkey see, monkey do
D. none of the above
Answer» A. you scratch my back and i’ll scratch yours
45.

In game theory, a situation in which one firm can gain only what another firm loses is called a

A. nonzero-sum game
B. prisoners’ dilemma
C. zero-sum game
D. cartel temptation
Answer» C. zero-sum game
46.

Which of the following is a nonzero-sum game?

A. prisoners’ dilemma
B. chess
C. competition among duopolists when market share is the payoff
D. all of the above
Answer» A. prisoners’ dilemma
47.

Which of the following is a zero-sum game?

A. prisoners’ dilemma
B. chess
C. a cartel member’s decision regarding whether or not to cheat
D. all of the above
Answer» B. chess
48.

A plan of action that considers the reactions of rivals is an example of

A. accounting liability
B. strategic behaviour
C. accommodating behaviour
D. risk management
Answer» B. strategic behaviour
49.

In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the

A. payoff
B. penalty
C. reward
D. end-game strategy
Answer» A. payoff
50.

A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called

A. first-mover advantage
B. a nash equilibrium strategy
C. tit-for-tat
D. a dominant strategy
Answer» D. a dominant strategy
51.

A game that involves interrelated decisions that are made over time is a

A. sequential game
B. repeated game
C. zero-sum game
D. nonzero-sum game
Answer» A. sequential game
52.

A game that involves multiple moves in a series of identical situations is called a

A. sequential game
B. repeated game
C. zero-sum game
D. nonzero-sum game
Answer» B. repeated game
53.

Sequential games can be solved using

A. tit-for-tat
B. dominated strategies
C. backward induction
D. risk averaging
Answer» C. backward induction
54.

A firm that is threatened by the potential entry of competitors into a market builds excess production capacity. This is an example of

A. a prisoners’ dilemma
B. collusion
C. a credible threat
D. tit-for-tat
Answer» C. a credible threat
55.

Implicit costs are:

A. equal to total fixed costs
B. comprised entirely of variable costs
C. “payments” for self-employed resources
D. always greater in the short run than in the long run
Answer» C. “payments” for self-employed resources
56.

Which would be an implicit cost for a firm? The cost:

A. of worker wages and salaries for the firm
B. paid for leasing a building for the firm
C. paid for production supplies for the firm
D. of wages foregone by the owner of the firm.
Answer» D. of wages foregone by the owner of the firm.
57.

If a firm’s revenues just cover all its opportunity costs, then:

A. normal profit is zero
B. economic profit is zero
C. total revenues equal its explicit costs
D. total revenues equal its implicit costs
Answer» B. economic profit is zero
58.

Suppose a firm sells its product at a price lower than the opportunity cost of the inputs used to produce it. Which is true?

A. the firm will earn accounting and economic profits
B. the firm will face accounting and economic losses
C. the firm will face an accounting loss, but earn economic profits
D. the firm may earn accounting profits, but will face economic losses
Answer» D. the firm may earn accounting profits, but will face economic losses
59.

The short run is a time period in which:

A. all resources are fixed
B. the level of output is fixed
C. the size of the production plant is variable
D. some resources are fixed and others are variable
Answer» D. some resources are fixed and others are variable
60.

The law of diminishing returns states that:

A. as a firm uses more of a variable resource, given the quantity of fixed resources, the average product of the firm will increase
B. as a firm uses more of a variable resource, given the quantity of fixed resources, marginal product of the firm will eventually decrease
C. in the short run, the average total costs of the firm will eventually diminish
D. in the long run, the average total costs of the firm will eventually diminish
Answer» B. as a firm uses more of a variable resource, given the quantity of fixed resources, marginal product of the firm will eventually decrease
61.

The law of diminishing returns only applies in cases where:

A. there is increasing scarcity of factors of production
B. the price of extra units of a factor is increasing
C. there is at least one fixed factor of production
D. capital is a variable input
Answer» C. there is at least one fixed factor of production
62.

The marginal product of labour curve shows the change in total product resulting from a:

A. one-unit increase in the quantity of a particular resource used, letting other resources vary
B. one-unit increase in the quantity of a particular resource used, holding constant other resources
C. change in the cost of a variable resource
D. change in the cost of a fixed resource
Answer» B. one-unit increase in the quantity of a particular resource used, holding constant other resources
63.

When the total product curve is falling, the:

A. marginal product of labor is zero
B. marginal product of labor is negative
C. average product of labor is increasing
D. average product of labor must be negative
Answer» B. marginal product of labor is negative
64.

When marginal product reaches its maximum, what can be said of total product?

A. total product must be at its maximum
B. total product starts to decline even if marginal product is positive
C. total product is increasing if marginal product is still positive
D. total product levels off
Answer» C. total product is increasing if marginal product is still positive
65.

Variable costs are:

A. sunk costs
B. multiplied by fixed costs
C. costs that change with the level of production
D. defined as the change in total cost resulting from the production of an additional unit of output.
Answer» C. costs that change with the level of production
66.

Which is not a fixed cost?

A. monthly rent of rs.1,000 contractually specified in a one-year lease
B. an insurance premium of rs.50 per year, paid last month
C. an attorney\s retainer of rs.50,000 per year
D. a worker\s wage of rs.15 per hour
Answer» D. a worker\s wage of rs.15 per hour
67.

If you know that with 8 units of output, average fixed cost is Rs.12.50 and average variable cost is Rs.81.25, then total cost at this output level is:

A. rs.93.75
B. rs.97.78
C. rs.750
D. rs.880
Answer» C. rs.750
68.

With fixed costs of Rs.400, a firm has average total costs of Rs.3 and average variable costs of Rs.2.50. Its output is:

A. 200 units
B. 400 units
C. 800 units
D. 1600 units
Answer» C. 800 units
69.

The reason the marginal cost curve eventually increases as output increases for the typical firm is because:

A. of diseconomies of scale
B. of minimum efficient scale
C. of the law of diminishing returns
D. normal profit exceeds economic profit
Answer» C. of the law of diminishing returns
70.

If the short-run average variable costs of production for a firm are rising, then this indicates that:

A. average total costs are at a maximum
B. average fixed costs are constant
C. marginal costs are above average variable costs
D. average variable costs are below average fixed costs
Answer» C. marginal costs are above average variable costs
71.

If a more efficient technology was discovered by a firm, there would be:

A. an upward shift in the avc curve
B. a downward shift in the afc curve
C. an upward shift in the afc curve
D. a downward shift in the mc curve
Answer» D. a downward shift in the mc curve
72.

The firm’s short-run marginal-cost curve is increasing when:

A. marginal product is increasing
B. marginal product is decreasing
C. total fixed cost is increasing
D. average fixed cost is decreasing
Answer» B. marginal product is decreasing
73.

A firm encountering economies of scale over some range of output will have a:

A. rising long-run average cost curve
B. falling long-run average cost curve
C. constant long-run average cost curve
D. rising, then falling, then rising long-run average cost curve
Answer» B. falling long-run average cost curve
74.

When a firm doubles its inputs and finds that its output has more than doubled, this is known as:

A. economies of scale
B. constant returns to scale
C. diseconomies of scale
D. a violation of the law of diminishing returns
Answer» A. economies of scale
75.

The larger the diameter of a natural gas pipeline, the lower is the average total cost of transmitting 1,000 cubic feet of gas 1,000 miles. This is an example of:

A. economies of scale
B. normative economies
C. diminishing marginal returns
D. an increasing marginal product of labour
Answer» A. economies of scale
76.

If all resources used in the production of a product are increased by 20 percent and output increases by 20 percent, then there must be:

A. economies of scale
B. diseconomies of scale
C. constant returns to scale
D. increasing average total costs.
Answer» C. constant returns to scale
77.

______ shows the overall output generated at a given level of input:

A. cost function
B. production function
C. iso cost
D. marginal rate of technical substitution
Answer» B. production function
78.

Isoquants are equal to:

A. product lines
B. total utility lines
C. cost lines
D. revenue lines
Answer» A. product lines
79.

The marginal product curve is above the average product curve when the average product is :

A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. none
Answer» A. increasing
80.

Increasing returns to scale can be explained in terms of:

A. external and internal economies
B. external and internal diseconomies
C. external economics and internal diseconomies
D. all of these
Answer» A. external and internal economies
81.

An isoquant is ______ to an iso cost line at equilibrium point:

A. convex
B. concave
C. tangent
D. perpendicular
Answer» C. tangent
82.

At the point of inflexion, the marginal product is:

A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. maximum
D. negative
Answer» C. maximum
83.

Diminishing marginal returns implies:

A. decreasing average variable costs
B. decreasing marginal costs
C. increasing marginal costs
D. decreasing average fixed costs
Answer» C. increasing marginal costs
84.

If the marginal product of labour is below the average product of labour. It must be true that:

A. marginal product of labour is negative
B. marginal product of labour is zero
C. average product of labour is falling
D. average product of labour is negative
Answer» C. average product of labour is falling
85.

Law of variable proportion is valid when:

A. only one input is fixed and all other inputs are kept variable
B. all factors are kept constant
C. all inputs are varied in the same proportion
D. none of these
Answer» A. only one input is fixed and all other inputs are kept variable
86.

A significant property of Cobb Douglas production function is that the elasticity of substitution between inputs is

A. equal to 1
B. more than 1
C. less than 1
D. 0
Answer» A. equal to 1
87.

CES production function is

A. homogeneous
B. linearly homogeneous
C. linearly non homogeneous
D. none of the above
Answer» B. linearly homogeneous
88.

--------- goods violate the law of demand after prices have risen above a certain level

A. normal goods
B. snob goods
C. veblen goods
D. bandwagon goods
Answer» C. veblen goods
89.

According to ----------- when income increases by a small increment, it leads to increasing marginal utility of income

A. kaldor
B. hicks
C. markowitz
D. friedman and savage
Answer» C. markowitz
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