Pelvic ultrasound is helpful in the diagnosis of:

Related MCQs

• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• A 47-year-old woman has noted a pressure sensation, but no pain, in her pelvic region for the past 5 months. On physical examination there is a right adnexal mass. An ultrasound scan shows a 10 cm fluid-filled cystic mass in the right ovary. A fine needle aspirate of the mass is performed and cytologic examination of clear fluid aspirated from the mass reveals clusters of malignant epithelial cells surrounding psammoma bodies. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
• A young medical student has come to you with complaints of oligomenorrrhea, hirsuitism and weight gain, ultrasound reveals bulky ovaries with sub-capsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is:
• A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The most likely diagnosis is:
• The site of primary infection in patients with pelvic tuberculosis is usually
• A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the v*gina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Involves pelvic LN clearance, hysterectomy, removal of the parametrium and the upper third of the v*gina.
• Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Invasion of the lower v*gina or pelvic wall, or causing ureteric obstruction
• A 4-year-old girl is noted to have breast enlargement and vaginal bleeding. On physical examination, she is noted to have a 9-cm pelvic mass. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?