A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The most likely diagnosis is:

Related MCQs

• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A young medical student has come to you with complaints of oligomenorrrhea, hirsuitism and weight gain, ultrasound reveals bulky ovaries with sub-capsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is:
• A 47-year-old woman has noted a pressure sensation, but no pain, in her pelvic region for the past 5 months. On physical examination there is a right adnexal mass. An ultrasound scan shows a 10 cm fluid-filled cystic mass in the right ovary. A fine needle aspirate of the mass is performed and cytologic examination of clear fluid aspirated from the mass reveals clusters of malignant epithelial cells surrounding psammoma bodies. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
• A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:
• A 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She has been sexually active for the past 2 years. She uses the oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She has depression for which she takes fluoxetine. She takes no other medications and has no allergies to medications. Her family history is negative for cancer and cardiac disease. Examination is unremarkable. Which of the following screening tests should this patient most likely have?
• A young girl, 23 years old is presented with complaint of abdominal pain, menorrhagia and 18 weeks size mass arising from hypogastrium. The most likely diagnosis is:
• 58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two weeks. The most essential investigation would be:
• Physical exam reveals the uterus to be about 6 wk size. Vaginal bleeding is scanty with no discernible tissue in the cervical os. There are no palpable adnexal masses. The uterus is mildly tender. Ultrasonographic exam does not reveal a gestational sac. Which of the following should be recommended?
• A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history, nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?