Typical cells are found only in the lower third of the epithelium

Related MCQs

• The presence of atypical cells within the squamous epithelium
• The definitive epithelium of v*gina is derived from :
• A 29-year-old G4P4 is found to have an abnormal smear signed out as atypical glandular cells, favouring neoplasia. She undergoes a colposcopy with cervical biopsies. One of the ectocervical biopsies demonstrated adenocarcinima in the situ. The most appropriate next step is:
• Involves pelvic LN clearance, hysterectomy, removal of the parametrium and the upper third of the v*gina.
• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• A 47-year-old woman has noted a pressure sensation, but no pain, in her pelvic region for the past 5 months. On physical examination there is a right adnexal mass. An ultrasound scan shows a 10 cm fluid-filled cystic mass in the right ovary. A fine needle aspirate of the mass is performed and cytologic examination of clear fluid aspirated from the mass reveals clusters of malignant epithelial cells surrounding psammoma bodies. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
• The primary drainage of the lower v*gina is to :
• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lower abdominal pain and discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :
• Female patient with history of hydatiform and complaining of lower abdominal pain , on examination there was tenderness on palpation and the lab result show high level of HCG , most likely to be :