A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician for follow-up after an abnormal Pap test and cervical biopsy. The patient's Pap test showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL). This was followed by colposcopy and biopsy of the cervix. The biopsy specimen also demonstrated HGSIL. The patient was counseled to undergo a loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP). Which of the following represents the potential long-term complications from this procedure?

Related MCQs

• A 34wk GA lady presented with vaginal bleeding of an amount more of that of her normal cycle. O/E uterine contracts every 4 min, bulged membrane, the cervix is 3 cm dilated, fetus is in a high transverse lie and the placenta is on the posterior fundus. US showed translucency behind the placenta and the CTG (Cardiotocography) showed FHR of 170, the best line of management is:
• A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Cervical lesion (ectopy):
• Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of cervix. management should include all except :
• Complications of the third stage of labor include all of the following except :
• All are complications of illegal /Septic abortion except
• After what age gestation would abnormal lie warrant hospital admission
• A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section. Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender. The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
• Which is the most common cause of abnormal lie?