Q.

A 50-year-old perimenopausal woman is evaluated because of abdominal swelling. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows mesenteric lymphadenopathy and a small amount of ascites but no ovarian masses. Needle biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma; the tumor is found to be negative for hormone receptors. The serum carcinoembryonic antigen level is normal at 2.0 ng/mL and the serum CA-125 is 1200 ng/mL (elevated). What is the best next step in her treatment?

A. Combination chemotherapy
B. Debulking surgery
C. Radiation therapy to a wide port
D. Positron emission tomography scan to assess other sites of disease
E. Bone scan to rule out skeletal metastases
Answer» B. Debulking surgery
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