Male with bone pain from metastatic prostate cancer will be started on LHRH antagonist. He refuses orchidectomy. His illness will show:

Related MCQs

• A 76-year-old man was diagnosed with prostate cancer 8 years ago. At that time he had a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 12 ng/mL, a Gleason score of 6, and a clinical stage of T2b (organ-confined on digital rectal examination but involving both lobes of the prostate gland). He was treated with external-beam radiation therapy, and his PSA level dropped to a low of 1.4 ng/mL. Four years later, his PSA level began to rise and now is 14.1 ng/mL. A recent bone scan and CT scans revealed no metastatic disease. His urologist has suggested initiating a course of leuprolide. Which of the following is a potential side effect of leuprolide that the patient should be informed about before commencing therapy?
• A 64-year-old woman has the following family history: One sister, who was a smoker, had lung cancer at the age of 63 years; another sister had breast cancer at the age of 70 years. Her father had prostate cancer at 82 years of age, and her mother had breast cancer at age 71 years. She has three other sisters, now aged 58, 60, and 65 years who have no history of cancer. She has two daughters and two sons between the ages of 25 and 39 years, who have no history of cancer. Her ancestry is European in general, and she is not of known Ashkenazi Jewish descent. She is concerned that “cancer runs in the family” and would like to have one of those “gene tests” she has read about. What is the best advice to give her and her family?
• Four years ago, a 67-year-old man had a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 16 ng/mL. Biopsy specimen showed adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. His Gleason score was 7. He was treated with external-beam radiation therapy. One month ago, the patient noted fatigue and rib pain. His PSA was found to be 87 ng/mL, and bone scan revealed diffuse metastatic disease. What is the best treatment for this patient?
• A 64-year-old white man presents for serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening at his wife‟s urging. He is in generally good health, except for mild hypertension. His digital rectal examination reveals a mildly enlarged prostate gland with no discrete nodules. He has no family history of prostate cancer. What is the best advice to give him?
• A 65-year-old man has a routine screening examination, and his serum prostate- specific antigen (PSA) level is found to be 6.7 ng/mL. Digital rectal examination reveals a mildly enlarged prostate gland, but no discrete nodules. One year ago, his PSA was 2.1 ng/mL. The patient is referred to a urologist who performs a biopsy of the gland. Biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma of the prostate with a Gleason score of 9. Which of the following best describes his prognosis on the basis of his Gleason score?
• A man with metastatic prostate cancer with increasing bone pain. The decision is made to start a GnRH agonist Your advice regarding the likely effect of this:
• A 72-year-old man was found to have an anterior rectal cancer at 2 cm from the anal verge. A CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis showed no evidence of metastatic disease. An MR scan of pelvis showed an anterior tumour abutting the prostate gland, radiologically staged as a T3, N1, M0 cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 40-year-old woman was treated for breast cancer 5 years ago by lumpectomy, breast irradiation, and 3 months of chemotherapy. Her original cancer was negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and unequivocally positive for HER2. Her periods stopped during chemotherapy but resumed 4 months later, and she remains premenopausal now. She is evaluated now because of pain in her back, a nagging cough, and fatigue. Physical examination shows palpable skin nodules over the affected breast, axillary adenopathy, and dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds in the base of the left lung; her liver edge is palpable below the right costochondral border. Liver function values are approximately twice normal; serum bilirubin is normal. Radiograph of the chest shows multiple pulmonary nodules and a left pleural effusion confirmed by CT, which also shows the liver nodules. Bone scan and MRI are consistent with bone metastases. Biopsy of one of the skin lesions is consistent with metast
• A 30-year-old man presented with a swelling in the testis and an ultrasound scan confirmed the presence of a malignant mass. Following orchidectomy, he was found to have a 40-mm seminomatous germ cell tumour without non-seminomatous components. There was evidence of vascular invasion within the testis.Investigations: serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1250 U/L (10–250) serum α-fetoprotein normal serum β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) 700 U/L (<5) A CT scan of body showed retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy of up to 7 cm in size, a 3- cm mediastinal lymph node and over 30 pulmonary metastases. There were no signs of liver, brain or bone metastases. What is the most appropriate International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group classification?
• A 45 years old male with bilateral breast cancer with his mother developed breast cancer when aged 34 years and his sister developed ovarian cancer at age 50 years. The most likely genetic mutation for this patient is/are