Which of the following lymph node chains is most commonly involved in patients who present with Hodgkin lymphoma?

Related MCQs

• Which of the following Hodgkin lymphoma subtypes is most closely associated with the development of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
• A 45-year-old woman is evaluated because of a palpable 2-cm right axillary lymph node. The lymph node is completely resected, and histologic study shows adenocarcinoma; hormone receptors are negative. Bilateral mammography is negative, as is MRI of the right breast. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for tumor, and no further lymphadenopathy is detected. Results of bone scan and MRI of the head are also unremarkable. The patient had been previously healthy and has never smoked. Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?
• In an office visit for an annual checkup, a 46-year-old man reports that he has had malaise and intermittent sweats for the past few months but has been able to continue his job as a high school teacher. Two years ago he was treated for stage III diffuse large-cell non-Hodgkin‟s lymphoma with six cycles of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) and attained complete remission. He takes simvastatin for hypercholesterolemia and hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. On physical examination, he has lymphadenopathy: a 3-cm right axillary node and a 2- cm right supraclavicular node. His spleen tip is palpable. Laboratory evaluation shows mild normochromic, normocytic anemia and an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase level. CT scans of his chest and abdomen reveal additional mediastinal and retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 29-year-old woman had a 2.5-mm Breslow thickness melanoma removed from her right shin. She was referred for wide local excision of the scar and consideration of sentinel node biopsy. In what proportion of patients with a negative sentinel node biopsy does nodal recurrence subsequently develop in the same lymph node basin?
• A 30-year-old woman has a right mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for a carcinoma diagnosed by fine needle aspiration cytology. The histologic pattern is that of a poorly differentiated carcinoma that is negative for oestrogen and progesterone receptors, but is positive for HER2/neu. One axillary lymph node demonstrates micro- metastases. Her 32 year old sister is found to have a similar lesion. Which of the following statements regarding risk factors for this lesion is the most appropriate?
• Which of the following cell markers is most commonly associated with classic Hodgkin lymphoma?
• Hodgkin lymphoma most commonly occurs during which decade of life?
• A young male has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. The LMO starts prednisone whilst awaiting a haematology admission. He presents unwell with WCC previously 30, now 2, urate 2.3, K 8.0, phosphate 10, Cr .25. The most likely diagnosis?
• A 43-year-old man is evaluated because of crushing substernal chest pain that developed during a pickup basketball game with colleagues at work. He was treated 15 years ago for stage IIB massive mediastinal Hodgkin‟s disease. Treatment included doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinbiastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD) followed by mantle-field radiation therapy to a total dose of 4400 cGy. He has had no recurrence of his Hodgkin‟s disease. He takes thyroid medication because he developed hypothyroidism 2 years after completing his therapy for Hodgkins disease. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• For previous patients, after the appropriate evaluation, the patient undergoes surgery. No intraoperative evidence of metastases is identified. Postoperatively, the pathology report reveals that the tumor is an adenocarcinoma invading into the pericolonic fat, with 2 involved lymph nodes. After the patient recovers from surgery, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?