Which one of the following statements is not implied by Berkeley’s view that ‘to be is to be perceived’?

Related MCQs

• ‘To be is to be perceived’ is a theory of---------
• ‘To be is to be perceived’ is a theory of ---------
• ‘To be is to be perceived’ according to:
• -------------- means that there are a priori categories of the understanding which determine the objectivity of empirical statements and that by their means alone such statements can ever be obtained.
• Which one of the following statements is NOT supported by Descartes?
• Which one of the following is true of Locke’s view of substance?
• Which one of the following is the view of Berkeley?
• Which among the following is NOT Locke’ view of ideas
• Which one of the following statements adequately sums up Descartes’ philosophy?
• Which one of the following statements is entitled by Descartes’ cogito ergo sum?