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320+ Project Management Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) , Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS) .

201.

Costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project.

A. Intangible Costs
B. Sunk Cost
C. Tangible Costs
D. Indirect Costs
Answer» D. Indirect Costs
202.

Relationship based on unrelated level of activity and past data of cost is measured with help of

A. cost estimation
B. price estimation
C. unit estimation
D. production estimation
Answer» A. cost estimation
203.

In estimation of cost functions, variations in a single activity level represents the

A. related total costs
B. related fixed cost
C. related variable cost
D. related per unit cost
Answer» A. related total costs
204.

The latest finish time for an activity:

A. Equals the min. of LFT − t for all immediate successors
B. Equals the max. of LFT − t for all immediate predecessors.
C. Equals the max. of EST + t for all immediate predecessors.
D. Equals the min. of EST + t for all immediate successors.
Answer» A. Equals the min. of LFT − t for all immediate successors
205.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. PERT is considered as a deterministic approach and CPM is a probabilistic techniques.
B. PERT is considered as a probabilistic techniques and CPM is considered as a deterministic approach.
C. PERT and CPM are both probabilistic techniques.
D. PERT and CPM are both considered as deterministic approachs.
Answer» B. PERT is considered as a probabilistic techniques and CPM is considered as a deterministic approach.
206.

In corporate costs, cost incurred to finance construction of new equipment are classified as

A. treasury costs
B. discretionary costs
C. human resource management costs
D. corporate administration costs
Answer» A. treasury costs
207.

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project objectives is termed.

A. Random Chance
B. Disaster
C. Risk
D. Hazard
Answer» C. Risk
208.

The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to

A. Slowly rise
B. Slowly drop
C. Drop sharply and then level out
D. Rise sharply and then level out
Answer» A. Slowly rise
209.

Evaluation process of proposed projects or groups of projects is known as:

A. Project Analysis
B. Project Compilation
C. Project selection
D. Project Documentation
Answer» C. Project selection
210.

Nature of interrelationships between components in a system defines the

A. Function of system
B. Structure of system
C. Environment of system
D. Platform of system
Answer» B. Structure of system
211.

Listing goals of each existing and proposed project is first step in

A. Data Collection
B. Establishment of Project council
C. Prioritizing the projects
D. Identification of project categories
Answer» D. Identification of project categories
212.

For any project word objective is held to be synonymous with

A. Fact
B. Option
C. Opinion
D. Assumption
Answer» A. Fact
213.

Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

A. Scope
B. Resources
C. Team
D. Budget
Answer» C. Team
214.

Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

A. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
B. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
C. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
D. All the above statements are correct.
Answer» A. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
215.

Which is the first stage in the project management model?

A. Understanding the project environment
B. Project definition
C. Project control
D. Project planning
Answer» A. Understanding the project environment
216.

A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would NOT normally contain:

A. The purpose
B. An End result
C. Success criteria
D. Control mechanisms
Answer» D. Control mechanisms
217.

Which of the following is a factor that influences project selection?

A. Perceived and real needs
B. List of potential and ongoing projects
C. Current organizational environment
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
218.

The primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase is a:

A. schedule of specific IS development projects.
B. Statement of Work.
C. mission statement.
D. design strategy.
Answer» A. schedule of specific IS development projects.
219.

When classifying and ranking projects, which of the following refers to the amount and type of resources the project requires and their availability?

A. Value chain availability
B. Business placement
C. Resource availability
D. Potential benefits
Answer» C. Resource availability
220.

When classifying and ranking projects, which of the following refers to the extent to which the project is viewed as helping the organization achieve its strategic objectives and longterm goals?

A. Resource availability
B. Business placement
C. Strategic alignment
D. Potential benefits
Answer» C. Strategic alignment
221.

During feasibility analysis it is necessary to examine several alternative solutions because
(i) a comparison of alternatives will lead to a cost-effective solution
(ii) a pre-conceived single solution may turn out to be unimplementable
(iii) it is always good to examine alternatives
(iv) management normally looks at alternatives

A. i and iii
B. i and iv
C. i and ii
D. ii and iv
Answer» C. i and ii
222.

Goals are identified by

A. discussion with all concerned
B. pinpointing unsatisfactory performance
C. finding poor management
D. examining a variety of documents
Answer» B. pinpointing unsatisfactory performance
223.

By technical feasibility of a solution we mean that

A. technology is available to implement it
B. persons are available to implement it
C. persons have technical ability to implement it
D. funds are available to implement it
Answer» A. technology is available to implement it
224.

By operational feasibility we mean

A. the system can be operated nicely
B. the system is unusable by operators
C. the system can be adapted by an organization without major disruptions
D. the system can be implemented
Answer» C. the system can be adapted by an organization without major disruptions
225.

By economic feasibility of a system we mean that

A. it is economical to operate
B. it is expensive to operate
C. it will be cost-effective if implemented
D. finances are available to implement the system and it will be cost – effective
Answer» D. finances are available to implement the system and it will be cost – effective
226.

The following are the most important points of a detailed system proposal
(i) who will supply and install the required equipment
(ii) cost-benefit analysis
(iii) comparison of alternative solutions
(iv) implementation plan

A. i, ii and iii
B. i, iii and iv
C. ii, iii and iv
D. ii and iii
Answer» C. ii, iii and iv
227.

At the end of the feasibility study the systems analyst

A. meets the users for a discussion
B. gives a summary feasibility report to the management
C. gives a systems proposal to management
D. tells the top management if the system is not feasible
Answer» B. gives a summary feasibility report to the management
228.

The process of determining whether an entrepreneur's idea is a viable foundation for creating a successful business is known as a:

A. feasibility analysis
B. business plan
C. strategic analysis
D. industry analysis
Answer» A. feasibility analysis
229.

A cost-benefit analysis is performed to assess

A. economic feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. technical feasibility
D. all of the above
Answer» A. economic feasibility
230.

The primary objective of cost-benefit analysis is

A. to find out direct and indirect cost of developing the information system
B. to determine the tangible benefits of the information system
C. to determine if it is economically worthwhile to invest in developing the information system
D. to determine the intangible benefits of the information system
Answer» C. to determine if it is economically worthwhile to invest in developing the information system
231.

The following assumptions are made in case of break even analysis, except

A. All fixed costs are fixed
B. All variable costs are fixed
C. The prices of input factors are constant
D. Volume of production and volumes of sales are equal
Answer» B. All variable costs are fixed
232.

At breakeven point there is

A. Profit
B. Loss
C. No profit or loss
D. None of these
Answer» C. No profit or loss
233.

Which of the following should be taken into account when planning a project?

A. Social environment
B. Political environment
C. Operational environment
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
234.

Improvement efforts are determined by:

A. Criticality of problems
B. Current performance
C. Priorities for future output
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
235.

Performance measurement is:

A. The determination of improvement efforts.
B. The process of quantifying action.
C. The improvement of operations.
D. The planning and control of operations.
Answer» B. The process of quantifying action.
236.

Performance relating to the five operations’ objectives can be plotted on which type of diagram?

A. Quality
B. Outcome
C. Polar
D. Satisfaction
Answer» C. Polar
237.

Which kind of standards are those that are set arbitrarily to reflect some level of performance that is regarded as appropriate or reasonable?

A. Competitor performance standards
B. Target performance standards
C. Historical standards
D. Absolute performance standards
Answer» B. Target performance standards
238.

For a police department, using competitor performance standards, a competitor might be:

A. A fire service
B. A foreign police authority
C. A similar police department
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
239.

What approach is used to compare organisation operations with those of other companies?

A. SWOT analysis
B. PERT analysis
C. Benchmarking
D. Competitor performance assessment
Answer» C. Benchmarking
240.

The origins of benchmarking as it is used today go back to which company?

A. Microsoft
B. Toyota
C. Xerox
D. McDonald’s
Answer» C. Xerox
241.

A comparison between operations or parts of operations that are within the same total organisation is called:

A. Internal benchmarking
B. Competitive benchmarking
C. Non-competitive benchmarking
D. External benchmarking
Answer» A. Internal benchmarking
242.

Benchmarking against external organisations that do not compete directly in the same markets is called:

A. Non-competitive benchmarking
B. Collaborative benchmarking
C. Practice benchmarking
D. Non-assault benchmarking
Answer» A. Non-competitive benchmarking
243.

Which of the following is regarded as a fundamental flaw in the whole concept of benchmarking?

A. It limits improvements to currently accepted methods of operating.
B. It does not involve learning.
C. It limits critical thinking.
D. It is not a continuous process.
Answer» A. It limits improvements to currently accepted methods of operating.
244.

What matrix positions each factor according to its performance and its importance?

A. Competitive forces matrix
B. Performance importance matrix
C. Importance performance matrix
D. Customer assessment matrix
Answer» C. Importance performance matrix
245.

What do the letter ‘D’ and ‘I’ stand for in Deming’s cycle of improvement?

A. Design and improve
B. Develop and implement
C. Design and implement
D. Define and improve
Answer» D. Define and improve
246.

Ishikawa Diagrams are another name for what technique of improvement?

A. Cause-effect diagrams
B. Input-output analysis
C. Process maps
D. Scatter diagrams
Answer» A. Cause-effect diagrams
247.

The principles of the business process re-engineering (BPR) approach do NOT include:

A. Checking that all internal customers act as their own suppliers to identify problems.
B. Scrapping any process line over two years old and starting again from scratch.
C. Striving for improvements in performance by radical rethinking and redesigning the process.
D. Rethinking business processes cross-functionally to organise work around natural information flows.
Answer» B. Scrapping any process line over two years old and starting again from scratch.
248.

Qualifying competitive factors are those which:

A. Directly win business for the operation.
B. Need to be better than a good industry standard.
C. Are relatively unimportant compared with the others.
D. May not win extra business if the operation improves its performance but can certainly lose business if performance falls below a particular point.
Answer» D. May not win extra business if the operation improves its performance but can certainly lose business if performance falls below a particular point.
249.

Which of the following is not a tool and technique used in the process of Plan Risk Responses

A. Contingent Response Strategies
B. Expert Judgment
C. Risk and Impact Matrix
D. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities
Answer» C. Risk and Impact Matrix
250.

During which stage of Risk planning are modeling techniques used to determine overall effects of risks on project objectives for high probability, high impact risks?

A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk responses
C. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
D. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
Answer» D. Perform Quantitative risk analysis

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