620+ Shalya Tantra Solved MCQs

1.

Vyan vayu karmas

A. Unmana
B. tiryak
C. Akunchan
D. all of above
Answer» D. all of above
2.

Rule of 9 ie related to

A. Fracture
B. Burn
C. Hernia
D. Head injury
Answer» B. Burn
3.

Padangushta Praman Pidika Is Seen In ………Bhagandar

A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. sanniopataj
D. Kaphaj
Answer» C. sanniopataj
4.

According to sushrut ……is shonitkaphprasadajam

A. Hruday
B. Fufussa
C. Vrukka
D. Pleeha
Answer» A. Hruday
5.

According to sushrut …………….isShonitphenprasadajam

A. Hruday
B. Fufussa
C. Vrukka
D. Pleeha
Answer» B. Fufussa
6.

According to sushruta types of arshas are ………..

A. 6
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
Answer» A. 6
7.

Lakshanas of paitik arsh a …………………….

A. Karirphala sadrusha
B. Shukajivha sadrusha
C. Kadamb pushpa
D. Gunja phala
Answer» B. Shukajivha sadrusha
8.

Acc to sushruta no of gudavaliya

A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2
Answer» C. 3
9.

Acc to sushruta guda angula pramana …………………….

A. 2 &1/2 angula
B. 3 &1/2 angula
C. 4 &1/2 angula
D. 5 &1/2 angula
Answer» C. 4 &1/2 angula
10.

Acc to sushruta which is not included in ashta mahagada

A. jwara
B. prameha
C. arsha
D. Vatavyadhi
Answer» A. jwara
11.

Asadhya lakshana of udara

A. trushna
B. Arochaka
C. parshvabhanga
D. swarabheda
Answer» C. parshvabhanga
12.

Spread of prostatic cancer is common to ……..

A. Brain
B. Lungs
C. Pancreas
D. Lumbar spine
Answer» D. Lumbar spine
13.

A homogenous and painless testicular tumor with histologically large cells in lobules with clear cytoplasm ‘fried egg appearance’ is………

A. Teratoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Leydig cell tumor
D. Seminoma
Answer» D. Seminoma
14.

Testicular torsion typically presents as….

A. ‘Bag of worms’ feel of scrotum
B. Swelling of scrotum and fever
C. Sudden pain in the scrotum and an absent cremasteric reflex
D. Painless translucent testicular mass
Answer» C. Sudden pain in the scrotum and an absent cremasteric reflex
15.

Varicoceles mostly appear on …… side

A. Right
B. Left
C. Anteriorly
D. Both
Answer» B. Left
16.

Priapism is…..

A. Inability to void bladder
B. Painful erection lasting more than 4 hours
C. Abnormal curvature of pen*s
D. . Cyst due to a dilates tesicular duct
Answer» B. Painful erection lasting more than 4 hours
17.

Area of the prostate typically affected by malignancy is….

A. Posterior and peripheral region
B. Anterior and peripheral region
C. Periurethral region
D. Entire anterior region
Answer» A. Posterior and peripheral region
18.

Most common congenital male reproductive disorder is….

A. Cryptorchidism
B. Peyronie’s disease
C. Testicular torsion
D. Hydrocele
Answer» A. Cryptorchidism
19.

Are testicular tumors usually biopsied

A. Yes
B. No
C. Sometimes
D. Depends on condition
Answer» B. No
20.

Caustaive agent of condyloma accuminatum is…

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. HSV
C. E COLI
D. HPV 6 or 11
Answer» D. HPV 6 or 11
21.

The risk factors for developing germ cell tumors are…

A. Kleinfelter syndrome & cryptorchidism
B. Hypospadias & epispadias
C. ORCHITIS
D. Hydrocele & varicocele
Answer» A. Kleinfelter syndrome & cryptorchidism
22.

The grading system for prostatic carcinoma is…..

A. Breslow thickness
B. Bloom Richardson
C. Glisson
D. Fuhrman
Answer» C. Glisson
23.

Hypospadias is….

A. Opening of urethra on the ventral surface of pen*s
B. Opening of urethra on the dorsal surface of pen*s
C. Inflammation of testicles
D. Benign warty growth on genital skin
Answer» A. Opening of urethra on the ventral surface of pen*s
24.

Most common type of thyroid carcinoma is….

A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Papillary carcinoma
C. Medullary carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma
Answer» B. Papillary carcinoma
25.

……..is NOT typical for Grave’s disease

A. Hyperplasia of follicles
B. Irregular shaped follicles
C. Scalloping of colloid
D. Extensive infiltration of
Answer» D. Extensive infiltration of
26.

…..thyroid cancer has worst prognosis

A. Anaplastic > medullary > follicular > papillary
B. Anaplastic > medullary > papillary > follicular
C. Anaplastic > papillary > medullary > follicular
D. Medullary > anaplastic > follicular > papillary
Answer» A. Anaplastic > medullary > follicular > papillary
27.

An 18 year old female presents with a painless 1cm mass in anterior neck region. Biopsy reveals fluid contained within pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Most likely diagnosis is….

A. Follicular adenoma
B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
C. Branchial cyst
D. Thyroid cystitis
Answer» B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
28.

Kehers sign related tio….

A. Appendix
B. Gall bladder
C. Spleen
D. stomoch
Answer» C. Spleen
29.

The length of the appendix is….

A. 2-4 cms
B. 7-10 cms
C. 5-6 cms
D. 11-13 cms
Answer» B. 7-10 cms
30.

…% of appendicular masses resolve with metronidazole and careful monitoring

A. 20
B. 60
C. 40
D. 80
Answer» D. 80
31.

Partial thickness burns usually take….days to heal

A. 2
B. 30
C. 5
D. 10
Answer» D. 10
32.

Full thickness burns typically take….weeks to heal by scar formation

A. 4
B. 10
C. 6
D. 8
Answer» A. 4
33.

Regarding plasma loss in burns, the correct statement is….

A. The plasma loss is most extensive 24 hours after burns
B. Plasma loss ceases approx. 48 hours after a burn
C. Amount of plasma loss is proportional to surface of burns
D. Amount of plasma loss is proportional to depth of burns
Answer» B. Plasma loss ceases approx. 48 hours after a burn
34.

As a thumb rule, administering intra venous fluid replacement is done after …… & of body surface is burnt

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer» C. 15
35.

….. ml of fluid would be given to a 70kg patient with a 40% burn in the first 24 hours

A. 2800
B. 5600
C. 11200
D. 5800
Answer» C. 11200
36.

…. is the fluid preferred to resuscitate a burns patient over the first 24 hours

A. 5% dextrose
B. NORMAL SALINE
C. Gelofusine
D. Hartmann’s solution
Answer» D. Hartmann’s solution
37.

….. is the most commonly used antibiotic to treat secondary infections on burns

A. Co amoxiclav
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Benzyl penicillin
D. Silver sulfadiazine
Answer» D. Silver sulfadiazine
38.

……. epithelium lines a sebaceous cyst

A. Columnar
B. Squamous
C. Cuboidal
D. Pseudostratified
Answer» B. Squamous
39.

….. organism causes verruca vulgaris

A. Herpes zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. Papilloma virus
D. Epstein Barr virus
Answer» C. Papilloma virus
40.

….. is an alternative name for keratocanthoma

A. Molluscum contagiosum
B. Molluscum sebaceum
C. Implantation dermoid
D. Sequestration dermoid
Answer» B. Molluscum sebaceum
41.

Untreated keratocanthoma, if untreated resolves spontaneously in….

A. 2 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 4 months
D. 3 months
Answer» B. 1 month
42.

…. is the origin of keratocanthoma

A. Hair follicle
B. Sebaceous gland
C. Implantation of epithelial cells from penetrating injury
D. Epithelial cells along line of fusion
Answer» A. Hair follicle
43.

Which of the following is true regarding subungual exostosis

A. This mostly affects the fifth toe
B. It is usually painless to pressure
C. It is more common in older patients
D. It appears as a reddish brown area under the nail
Answer» D. It appears as a reddish brown area under the nail
44.

Which of the following is true as regarding Marjolin’s ulcer

A. This is a malignant change in a scar, ulcer or sinus
B. They grow quickly
C. Lymphatic spread occurs early
D. They are very painful
Answer» A. This is a malignant change in a scar, ulcer or sinus
45.

A baby with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents

A. Between 3rd & 4th week
B. At 2 days
C. Between 1st &2nd week
D. Between 3-7 days
Answer» A. Between 3rd & 4th week
46.

……. & of infants with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis have a palpable pyloric tumor

A. . 95%
B. 75%
C. 25%
D. a. 5%
Answer» A. . 95%
47.

What % of peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum

A. 10
B. 40
C. 20
D. 80
Answer» D. 80
48.

What is the peak age of presentation of duodenal ulcers

A. 40-50 years
B. 50-60 years
C. 30-40 years
D. 20-30 years
Answer» C. 30-40 years
49.

What %age of patients will be successfully eradicated of Helicobacter Pylori using metronidazole with either clarithromycin of amoxicillin

A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 90
Answer» D. 90
50.

What % age of gastrectomies are complicated by stomal ulceration

A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer» A. 2
51.

How proximal to the caecum is the Meckel’s diverticulum usually found

A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 60 cm
Answer» D. 60 cm
52.

What percentage of the General population have a Meckel’s diverticulum

A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Answer» A. 2%
53.

USHTAGRIVA IS A TYPE OF……….BHAGANDAR

A. VATAJ
B. PITTAJA
C. KAPHAJA
D. SANNIPATAJ
Answer» A. VATAJ
54.

What percentage of patients with Crohn’s disease have perianal disease

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer» B. 10%
55.

How long is the average inguinal canal

A. 2 CMS
B. 4 CMS
C. 6 CMS
D. 8 CMS
Answer» B. 4 CMS
56.

What percentage of inguinal hernias occur on the right side

A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
Answer» A. 20
57.

Which hepatitis viruses can cause hepatic jaundice

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A,B & C
Answer» D. A,B & C
58.

What percentage of gall stones are radio opaque

A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 100
Answer» A. 10
59.

What percentage of hydatid cysts in humans occur in the liver

A. 5
B. 25
C. 75
D. 90
Answer» C. 75
60.

In which vyadhi agnikarma is done over forhead ,eyebro

A. Shirorog
B. Adhimanth
C. Granthi
D. A& b
Answer» D. A& b
61.

What is the commonest cause of hepato cellular carcinoma worldwide

A. Hepatitis C
B. Hepatitis B
C. Smoking
D. Alcohol
Answer» A. Hepatitis C
62.

What percentage of people have congenital nanmolies of gall bladder and bile ducts

A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 17
Answer» A. 10
63.

What percentage of gall stones can be seen on plain abdominal X rays

A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 17
Answer» A. 10
64.

Which non musculo skeletal pain can be referred to the angle of scapula

A. Pain arising from the diaphragm
B. Pain arising from the foregut structures
C. Pain arising from the mid gut structures
D. Pain arising from the gall bladder
Answer» A. Pain arising from the diaphragm
65.

Pain in epigastric region usually arises from….

A. . Foregut structures
B. Mid gut structures
C. Retroperitoneal structures
D. Hind gut structures
Answer» A. . Foregut structures
66.

Pain in peri umbilical region usually arises from…

A. Foregut structures
B. Mid gut structures
C. Hind gut structures
D. Retroperitoneal structures
Answer» B. Mid gut structures
67.

Pain in suprapubic region usually arises from…..

A. Foregut structures
B. Mid gut structures
C. Hind gut structures
D. Retroperitoneal structures
Answer» C. Hind gut structures
68.

…… is the percentage of intracellular fluid of the body weight of a normal person

A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60
Answer» C. 40
69.

Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of an abscess.

A. The definite treatment is by drainage
B. Antibiotics alone suffice in the treatment
C. An abscess is not incised
D. Antibiotic injection in abscess is successful
Answer» A. The definite treatment is by drainage
70.

The suitable age of mammography as against ultrasound for a lump in breast is

A. 25 years
B. 35 years
C. 45 years
D. 65 years
Answer» B. 35 years
71.

. Fibroadenomas are most common in….decade

A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 5th
Answer» B. 3rd
72.

The normal urine flow rate is…ml/sec

A. 1
B. 5
C. 15
D. 50
Answer» C. 15
73.

Shastrakarma done by Aara shastra is….

A. Visravan
B. Vedhan
C. Chedan
D. Bhedan
Answer» B. Vedhan
74.

Agnikarma is contraindicated in….

A. Raktapitta
B. Shleepada
C. Nadivrana
D. Chinna rakta vahini
Answer» A. Raktapitta
75.

Shastrakarma indicated in mootravriddhi is…..

A. Visravan
B. Lekhan
C. Bhedan
D. Aaharan
Answer» D. Aaharan
76.

Ksharakarma is contraindicated in ….

A. Gulma
B. . Udara roga
C. Shoola roga
D. Bhrama
Answer» D. Bhrama
77.

Tiryak chedana is indicated in…..

A. Vankshana
B. Guda
C. Hasta
D. Medhra
Answer» A. Vankshana
78.

Tapping in dakodara is done by….

A. Vrihimukha
B. Dakodara yantra
C. Mandalagra
D. 1 & 2
Answer» A. Vrihimukha
79.

Vitamin involved in blood clotting is….

A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K
Answer» D. K
80.

Complication of peritonitis is …..

A. Subdiaphragmatic abscess
B. Pancreatic abscess
C. . Psoas abscess
D. Liver abscess
Answer» A. Subdiaphragmatic abscess
81.

Empyema of gall bladder is because of….

A. Obstructed gall bladder
B. Inflamed gall bladder
C. Inflamed obstructed gall bladder
D. Chronic obstructed gall bladder
Answer» B. Inflamed gall bladder
82.

Kshar is…..

A. Vataghna
B. Pittaghna
C. Kaphaghna
D. Tridoshaghna
Answer» D. Tridoshaghna
83.

Agnikarma is contra indicated in……

A. Bhinna koshtha
B. Udara roga
C. Shleepada roga
D. Panduroga
Answer» A. Bhinna koshtha
84.

Kshara karma is……

A. Dahan, Pachan, Daran
B. Dahan, Chedan, Daran
C. Chedan, Bhedan, Lekhan
D. Pachan, Chedan, Vedhan
Answer» C. Chedan, Bhedan, Lekhan
85.

Major cause of portal hypertension is….

A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Thrombosis of portal vein
C. Tricuspid valve imcompetence
D. . Congenital abnormality of portal vein
Answer» B. Thrombosis of portal vein
86.

Charcot’s biliary triad is…..

A. Fluctuating jaundice, recurrent pain, intermittent fever with rigors
B. Fluctuating jaundice, recurrent pain, vomiting
C. Recurrent pain, intermittent fever with rigors, vomiting
D. Recurrent pain, intermittent fever with rigors, dyspepsia
Answer» A. Fluctuating jaundice, recurrent pain, intermittent fever with rigors
87.

Casoni’s test is done for….

A. Simple liver cyst
B. Hydatid cyst
C. Pancreatitis
D. Filariasis
Answer» B. Hydatid cyst
88.

According to Courvoisier’s law,

A. A palpable non tender GB associated with jaundice is unlikely to be due to gall stones
B. A palpable tender GB associated with jaundice is unlikely to be due to gall stones
C. If GB is palpably enlarged then inflamed GB is the cause
D. If GB is palpably enlarged then obstructed GB the cause
Answer» A. A palpable non tender GB associated with jaundice is unlikely to be due to gall stones
89.

Boas’ sign is positive in…..

A. Appendicitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Duodenal ulcer
Answer» C. Cholecystitis
90.

Agnikarma should be avoided in …..

A. Sharad & Greeshma
B. Sharad & Vasant
C. Greeshma & Varsha
D. Greeshma & Vasant
Answer» A. Sharad & Greeshma
91.

Which one is both Yantra & Shastra

A. Mandalagra
B. Eshani
C. Karpatra
D. Kankamukha
Answer» B. Eshani
92.

The best drug for treatment of Arsha is….

A. Haridra & Snuhi
B. Kutaj & Haridra
C. Bhallatak & Jimikand
D. Kutaj & Bhallatak
Answer» D. Kutaj & Bhallatak
93.

The leaf used in Shalyakarma is…...

A. Betas patra
B. Utpal patra
C. Shefali patra
D. Kush patra
Answer» C. Shefali patra
94.

Karkatak is a type of….

A. Bhagna
B. Arbuda
C. Mutraghat
D. Kshudra roga
Answer» A. Bhagna
95.

In shastrakarma of parisravi, a mixture of ……… is applied on skin sutures

A. Madhuyashti & Krishna mrida
B. Madhu & Haridra
C. Madhuyashti & Jati
D. Jati & Haridra
Answer» B. Madhu & Haridra
96.

…… bark is used for kusha

A. . Padmak
B. Amra
C. . Kakubh
D. Nimba
Answer» C. . Kakubh
97.

Treatment of …….. is done by agnikarma & ksharakarma

A. Raktaj arsha
B. Pittaj arsha
C. Vataj & Kaphaja arsha
D. Raktaja & Pittaja arsha
Answer» C. Vataj & Kaphaja arsha
98.

Aaharan of ashmari is done by …...

A. Agravakra
B. Agraruju
C. Paschavakra
D. Arshmukhi
Answer» A. Agravakra
99.

If Basti is full of blood post shastrakarma, treatment advised is ……

A. Uttara basti of ksheeri vriksha kashaya
B. Uttarabasti of Saurashtrikia
C. Uttarabasti of Gairika
D. Uttarabasti of Lodhra
Answer» A. Uttara basti of ksheeri vriksha kashaya
100.

Treatment of Agantuja Bhagandara after Chedana is……

A. Kshara karma
B. Agnikarma
C. Kshara & Agnikarma
D. Lekhan
Answer» C. Kshara & Agnikarma
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