HPV types _________ are the most significant and account for 70% of all cervical cancers

Related MCQs

• The following about human papilloma virus (HPV) infection are correct EXCEPT:
• Ordering accord to the commonest cancers in female genital tract the right is :
• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:
• A 29-year-old G4P4 is found to have an abnormal smear signed out as atypical glandular cells, favouring neoplasia. She undergoes a colposcopy with cervical biopsies. One of the ectocervical biopsies demonstrated adenocarcinima in the situ. The most appropriate next step is:
• Cervical carcinoma is most common between the ages of
• Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Microinvasion of the basement membrane, <7mm across, with no lymph/vascular space invasion
• Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Invasion of the lower v*gina or pelvic wall, or causing ureteric obstruction
• Before puberty, what is the ratio between the cervical length and uterine body ?
• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?