A 25 year old man is unable to plantar flex his foot. The most likely cause is damage to:

Related MCQs

• A 25 y.o. man is unable to plantarflex his foot. The most likely cause is damage to
• A 45-year-old man is unable to initiate abduction of the arm following reduction of a dislocated shoulder. Damage to which nerve is most likely to be responsible for this condition:
• Following a laceration to the anterior surface of the wrist, a patient is unable to flex the proximal interphalangeal joint of his middle finger when his other fingers are held in extension. The tendon of which muscle has been divided?
• Following an injury to the leg, a patient is unable to dorsiflex their foot. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?
• Following an injury to the leg, a patient is unable to dorsiflex their foot. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?
• Following a subcapital fracture of the neck of the femur, an 80 year old man sustains avascular necrosis of the femoral head. This is most likely to be the consequence of interruption to the blood supply to the head from which of the following sources:
• The myotome for plantar flexion of the great toe is:
• Medial longitudinal plantar arch:
• Which is supplied by the medial plantar nerve?
• What muscle cause dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot