Following a subcapital fracture of the neck of the femur, an 80 year old man sustains avascular necrosis of the femoral head. This is most likely to be the consequence of interruption to the blood supply to the head from which of the following sources:

Related MCQs

• Following a subcapital fracture of the neck of femur, an 80 y.o. man sustains avascular necrosis of the femoral head. This is most likely to be the consequence of interruption to the blood supply to the head from which of the following sources?
• The femoral vein lies …….. to the femoral artery in the femoral sheath:
• A 45-year-old man is unable to initiate abduction of the arm following reduction of a dislocated shoulder. Damage to which nerve is most likely to be responsible for this condition:
• A 25 year old man is unable to plantar flex his foot. The most likely cause is damage to:
• Which of the following nerves is involved in fracture neck humerus?
• With regard to the head of the femur
• A 30 year old man presents with adenopathy of the medial group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes on the right side. Which of the following is the primary site resulting in this finding?
• Following muscles are inserted into greater trochanter of femur EXCEPT;
• At the upper end of the femur:
• A 25 y.o. man is unable to plantarflex his foot. The most likely cause is damage to