Predisposing factors to oesophageal adenocarcinoma include the following except

Related MCQs

• A 68-year-old woman is evaluated because of rectal bleeding that began recently and a sense of fullness in the rectum. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows a mass 11 cm from the anus, and biopsy reveals adenocarcinoma. The patient is referred to a colorectal surgeon, and a low anterior resection is performed. The primary tumor, a 4-cm moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma, penetrates the bowel wall. No lymph nodes are involved. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient‟s management?
• Adenocarcinoma of the ascending colon is more likely than adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon to:
• Which of the following is most strongly predisposing to colon cancer?
• Oesophageal cancer is associated with:
• A 45-year-old woman is evaluated because of a palpable 2-cm right axillary lymph node. The lymph node is completely resected, and histologic study shows adenocarcinoma; hormone receptors are negative. Bilateral mammography is negative, as is MRI of the right breast. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for tumor, and no further lymphadenopathy is detected. Results of bone scan and MRI of the head are also unremarkable. The patient had been previously healthy and has never smoked. Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?
• A 59-year-old woman with an 80-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of weight loss and severe pain in the upper part of her left leg. She has lost 11.3 kg (25 Ib) from baseline weight of 59 kg (130 Ib). A large lytic lesion is noted on the left femur, with erosion into the cortex. Bone scan shows multiple lesions, and CT scan of the chest shows a large left hilar mass and med iastinal lymphadenopathy. Bronchoscopic biopsy specimen shows poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Radiation therapy to the left femur is initiated. Which of the following findings would preclude use of palliative chemotherapy for this patient?
• A 65-year-old man has a routine screening examination, and his serum prostate- specific antigen (PSA) level is found to be 6.7 ng/mL. Digital rectal examination reveals a mildly enlarged prostate gland, but no discrete nodules. One year ago, his PSA was 2.1 ng/mL. The patient is referred to a urologist who performs a biopsy of the gland. Biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma of the prostate with a Gleason score of 9. Which of the following best describes his prognosis on the basis of his Gleason score?
• 26- A 60-year-old man was diagnosed last year with adenocarcinoma of the lung, and a 4 cm mass lesion was treated with a right lower lobectomy. He now has an abdominal CT scan that reveals scattered hepatic mass lesions and hilar lymphadenopathy. For several weeks, he has had increasing malaise. A urinalysis reveals marked proteinuria, and a 24 hour urine protein collection is 2.7 g/24hr. His serum urea is 30 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5) with creatinine of 450 µmol/L (60 - 110). A renal biopsy is performed, and there is focal deposition of IgG and C3 with a granular pattern. He is most likely to have which of the following conditions?
• A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine physical examination. The patient‟s medical history is significant for hypertension. The patient is found to have guaiac-positive stools and is subsequently referred for colonoscopy. Colonoscopy reveals a “golf ball”-size, near-obstructing tumor in the descending colon, not admitting the scope. The biopsy is positive for adenocarcinoma of the colon. Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?
• For previous patients, after the appropriate evaluation, the patient undergoes surgery. No intraoperative evidence of metastases is identified. Postoperatively, the pathology report reveals that the tumor is an adenocarcinoma invading into the pericolonic fat, with 2 involved lymph nodes. After the patient recovers from surgery, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?