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Q. |
A 68-year-old woman is evaluated because of rectal bleeding that began recently and a sense of fullness in the rectum. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows a mass 11 cm from the anus, and biopsy reveals adenocarcinoma. The patient is referred to a colorectal surgeon, and a low anterior resection is performed. The primary tumor, a 4-cm moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma, penetrates the bowel wall. No lymph nodes are involved. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient‟s management? |
A. | No chemotherapy or radiation therapy; annual flexible sigmoidoscopy |
B. | Postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy and pelvic radiation therapy |
C. | Postoperative pelvic radiation therapy |
D. | Complete colonoscopy within the first year, repeated every 3 to 5 years |
Answer» B. Postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy and pelvic radiation therapy |
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