Adenocarcinoma of the ascending colon is more likely than adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon to:

Related MCQs

• A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine physical examination. The patient‟s medical history is significant for hypertension. The patient is found to have guaiac-positive stools and is subsequently referred for colonoscopy. Colonoscopy reveals a “golf ball”-size, near-obstructing tumor in the descending colon, not admitting the scope. The biopsy is positive for adenocarcinoma of the colon. Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?
• A 68-year-old woman is evaluated because of rectal bleeding that began recently and a sense of fullness in the rectum. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows a mass 11 cm from the anus, and biopsy reveals adenocarcinoma. The patient is referred to a colorectal surgeon, and a low anterior resection is performed. The primary tumor, a 4-cm moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma, penetrates the bowel wall. No lymph nodes are involved. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of a several-month history of increasing fatigue and some vague upper abdominal discomfort. His medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease, coronary artery disease, and clinical depression, all of which are well controlled with medications. The patient has been working full time. On physical examination, he has mild hepatomegaly. His hemoglobin is 12.2 g/dL, serum alkaline phosphatase level 280 U/L, and serum aspartate aminotransferase level 65 U/L. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows multiple hepatic lesions ranging in size from 1 cm to 4 cm; mesenteric, para-aortic, and paracaval lymphadenopathy, and a colonic mass at the splenic flexure. Colonoscopy reveals a nonobstructing, non bleeding lesion; biopsy shows it to be poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Fine- needle aspiration of one of the liver lesions confirms the presence of malignant cells consistent with a primary colon cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in
• In contrast to carcinoma of the right colon, carcinoma of the left colon tends to be associated with:
• 26- A 60-year-old man was diagnosed last year with adenocarcinoma of the lung, and a 4 cm mass lesion was treated with a right lower lobectomy. He now has an abdominal CT scan that reveals scattered hepatic mass lesions and hilar lymphadenopathy. For several weeks, he has had increasing malaise. A urinalysis reveals marked proteinuria, and a 24 hour urine protein collection is 2.7 g/24hr. His serum urea is 30 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5) with creatinine of 450 µmol/L (60 - 110). A renal biopsy is performed, and there is focal deposition of IgG and C3 with a granular pattern. He is most likely to have which of the following conditions?
• Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in hereditary colon cancer:
• A 68-year-old woman is evaluated because of a lump on her chest wall. Seventeen years ago she developed stage I ductal adenocarcinoma (estrogen receptor-positive) of the left breast; her disease was managed with lumpectomy, breast radiation therapy, and 5 years of tamoxifen therapy. The lump she now has is separate from the breast, subcutaneous in location, fixed to the underlying 4th rib, and nontender. The mass is excised and found to be a fibrosarcoma. What is the relationship of this fibroscarcoma to her original cancer and its treatment?
• A 70-year-old man with an 80-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of a chronic cough of 6 months duration. Chest radiograph shows a 3-cm mass in the left perihilar region, and bronchoscopic biopsy confirms poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and all blood studies are normal. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are normal, but CT scans of the chest and abdomen show the mass and two 1-cm nodules in the right lobe of the liver. Intravenous contrast perfusion of the two nodules during the CT scan is not suspicious for hemangioma. Positron emission tomography scan shows distinct uptake in the left perihilar mass but only faint focal activity in the right lobe of the liver.Pulmonary function tests show mild obstructive disease. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 45-year-old woman is evaluated because of a palpable 2-cm right axillary lymph node. The lymph node is completely resected, and histologic study shows adenocarcinoma; hormone receptors are negative. Bilateral mammography is negative, as is MRI of the right breast. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for tumor, and no further lymphadenopathy is detected. Results of bone scan and MRI of the head are also unremarkable. The patient had been previously healthy and has never smoked. Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?
• Four years ago, a 67-year-old man had a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 16 ng/mL. Biopsy specimen showed adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. His Gleason score was 7. He was treated with external-beam radiation therapy. One month ago, the patient noted fatigue and rib pain. His PSA was found to be 87 ng/mL, and bone scan revealed diffuse metastatic disease. What is the best treatment for this patient?