Which of the following stages of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma is associated with the lowest risk of contralateral cervical lymph node metastases?

Related MCQs

• A 30-year-old woman has a right mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for a carcinoma diagnosed by fine needle aspiration cytology. The histologic pattern is that of a poorly differentiated carcinoma that is negative for oestrogen and progesterone receptors, but is positive for HER2/neu. One axillary lymph node demonstrates micro- metastases. Her 32 year old sister is found to have a similar lesion. Which of the following statements regarding risk factors for this lesion is the most appropriate?
• A 30-year-old man presented with a swelling in the testis and an ultrasound scan confirmed the presence of a malignant mass. Following orchidectomy, he was found to have a 40-mm seminomatous germ cell tumour without non-seminomatous components. There was evidence of vascular invasion within the testis.Investigations: serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1250 U/L (10–250) serum α-fetoprotein normal serum β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) 700 U/L (<5) A CT scan of body showed retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy of up to 7 cm in size, a 3- cm mediastinal lymph node and over 30 pulmonary metastases. There were no signs of liver, brain or bone metastases. What is the most appropriate International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group classification?
• What is the risk of metastasis to the lymph nodes in a patient with stage T2N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the lateral aspect of the oral tongue?
• A 61-year-old man with a 120-pack-year smoking history is evaluated for a persistent and worsening cough and found to have a 3-cm mass in the right upper lobe on chest radiography. CT-directed needle biopsy is positive for squamous cell carcinoma. CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis, bone scan, and MRI of the head are negative for metastatic disease. Positron emission tomography scan shows uptake only in the right upper lobe mass, and pulmonary function tests indicate that the patient has adequate pulmonary reserve to undergo resection. The patient undergoes a right upper lobectomy. All margins are clear, and all peribronchial lymph nodes are negative for tumor within the resected specimen. What is the most reasonable adjuvant therapy for this patient?
• A 29-year-old man was diagnosed with stage II (that is, spread from the primary tumor to retroperitoneal lymph nodes) nonseminomatous germ cell tumor 1 year ago. Treatment included orchiectomy and retroperitoneal lymph node dissection. He now presents with an elevated level of β-human chorionic gonadotropin hormone and multiple pulmonary lesions ranging in size from 0.61 to 3.22 cm. Needle biopsy specimen of the largest lesion reveals a germ cell tumor consistent with the initial diagnosis. He is asymptomatic. What is the best treatment for this patient?
• A 45-year-old woman is evaluated because of a palpable 2-cm right axillary lymph node. The lymph node is completely resected, and histologic study shows adenocarcinoma; hormone receptors are negative. Bilateral mammography is negative, as is MRI of the right breast. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for tumor, and no further lymphadenopathy is detected. Results of bone scan and MRI of the head are also unremarkable. The patient had been previously healthy and has never smoked. Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?
• A well-lateralized, stage T3N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx has at least a 15% risk of metastasis to the:
• A 29-year-old woman had a 2.5-mm Breslow thickness melanoma removed from her right shin. She was referred for wide local excision of the scar and consideration of sentinel node biopsy. In what proportion of patients with a negative sentinel node biopsy does nodal recurrence subsequently develop in the same lymph node basin?
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of new-onset hemoptysis and a 100-pack-year smoking history. Chest radiograph shows a 4-cm right perihilar mass, and bronchoscopic biopsy and cytologic evaluation of sputum confirm squamous cell carcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and the patient reports no weight loss.Complete blood count is normal except for a serum alkaline phosphatase level at 110 U/L. CT scans of the chest and abdomen show no mediastinal adenopathy. Results of a positron emission tomography scan are negative, except for the right perihilar mass.In which of the following situations would surgical therapy be offered?
• 4- A 64-year-old man is found to have squamous cell bronchogenic carcinoma. Which of the following statements is true regarding surgical resection?