[Solved] A well-lateralized, stage T3N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx has at least a 15% risk of metastasis to the:

Q.	A well-lateralized, stage T3N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx has at least a 15% risk of metastasis to the:
A.	ipsilateral parotid lymph nodes.
B.	ipsilateral submandibular lymph nodes.
C.	posterior triangle lymph nodes bilaterally.
D.	occipital lymph nodes bilaterally.
Answer» C. posterior triangle lymph nodes bilaterally.

3.6k

Do you find this helpful?

View all MCQs in

Important Questions Repeated in MD Exams

Discussion

No comments yet

Related MCQs

What is the risk of metastasis to the lymph nodes in a patient with stage T2N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the lateral aspect of the oral tongue?
A 58-year-old man presented with haemoptysis, weight loss and worsening breathlessness. He was a lifelong heavy smoker. His chest X-ray was abnormal. A CT scan of chest and abdomen demonstrated a large mass in the right lower lobe invading into the mediastinum and pericardium, extensive mediastinal lymphadenopathy, and bone metastasis (T4, N3, M1b). Bronchoscopy and biopsy confirmed a squamous cell carcinoma. Mutation analysis revealed that EGFR and K-ras genes were both wild type. What is the most appropriate first-line therapy?
Which of the following stages of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma is associated with the lowest risk of contralateral cervical lymph node metastases?
A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation revealed a 2-cm grade 1, stage IB1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. There was no evidence of lymphovascular space invasion. She had completed her family.What is the most appropriate treatment?
A 61-year-old man with a 120-pack-year smoking history is evaluated for a persistent and worsening cough and found to have a 3-cm mass in the right upper lobe on chest radiography. CT-directed needle biopsy is positive for squamous cell carcinoma. CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis, bone scan, and MRI of the head are negative for metastatic disease. Positron emission tomography scan shows uptake only in the right upper lobe mass, and pulmonary function tests indicate that the patient has adequate pulmonary reserve to undergo resection. The patient undergoes a right upper lobectomy. All margins are clear, and all peribronchial lymph nodes are negative for tumor within the resected specimen. What is the most reasonable adjuvant therapy for this patient?
A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of new-onset hemoptysis and a 100-pack-year smoking history. Chest radiograph shows a 4-cm right perihilar mass, and bronchoscopic biopsy and cytologic evaluation of sputum confirm squamous cell carcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and the patient reports no weight loss.Complete blood count is normal except for a serum alkaline phosphatase level at 110 U/L. CT scans of the chest and abdomen show no mediastinal adenopathy. Results of a positron emission tomography scan are negative, except for the right perihilar mass.In which of the following situations would surgical therapy be offered?
4- A 64-year-old man is found to have squamous cell bronchogenic carcinoma. Which of the following statements is true regarding surgical resection?
A 75-year-old man with squamous cell carcinoma is thought to have resectable disease. Which of the following would be a contraindication to surgery?
Predisposes to squamous cell carcinoma:
Which of the following factors most adversely affects patients receiving radiation therapy for squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck?