Chapter: Ultrasonic Testing Level 2
1.

Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:

A. 1 MHz and 10 MHz
B. 1 MHz and 100 MHz
C. 10 MHz and 50 MHz
D. 1 MHz and 25 MHz
Answer» D. 1 MHz and 25 MHz
2.

For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:

A. Sensitivity
B. Frequency
C. Wavelength
D. Crystal thickness
Answer» B. Frequency
3.

Resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:

A. Wavelength
B. Crystal thickness
C. Bandwidth
D. Q
Answer» C. Bandwidth
4.

The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:

A. Acoustic impedance
B. The velocity-density ratio
C. Index of refraction
D. Reflection co-efficient
Answer» A. Acoustic impedance
5.

Snell's law is given by which of the following:

A. (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA
B. (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB
C. (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA
D. (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]
Answer» B. (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB
6.

Snell's law is used to calculate:

A. Angle of beam divergence
B. Angle of diffraction
C. Angle of refraction
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Angle of refraction
7.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

A. 26 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 48 degrees
D. 64 degrees
Answer» B. 45 degrees
8.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

A. 64 degrees
B. 45.7 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 70 degrees
Answer» C. 60 degrees
9.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL =0.267cm/microsec]

A. 53 degrees
B. 61 degrees
C. 42 degrees
D. 68 degrees
Answer» A. 53 degrees
10.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

A. 53 degrees
B. 61 degrees
C. 42 degrees
D. 68 degrees
Answer» D. 68 degrees
11.

Lithium sulphate, barium titanate and lead metaniobate are examples of:

A. Magnetostrictive elements
B. Piezoelectric elements
C. Rochelle salts
D. Y cut crystals
Answer» B. Piezoelectric elements
12.

The particle motion for compression waves is:

A. Parallel to wave propagation
B. Transverse to wave propagation
C. Elliptical
D. Circular
Answer» A. Parallel to wave propagation
13.

Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:

A. X cut crystals
B. Y cut crystals
C. Modulated R-F conversion
D. Mode converted longitudinal waves
Answer» B. Y cut crystals
14.

Near surface resolution can be improved by:

A. Using a narrow band transducer
B. Using a focused transducer
C. Using a high Q transducer
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Using a focused transducer
15.

The most important requirement for paintbrush transducer is:

A. Uniform beam intensity across the transducer
B. A pinpoint focal spot
C. Good horizontal linearity characteristics
D. Prescribed vertical and horizontal linearity characteristics
Answer» A. Uniform beam intensity across the transducer
16.

Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?

A. Extended useful range
B. Reduced sensitivity in localised area
C. Improved signal to noise ratio over an extended range
D. Higher resolution over a limited range
Answer» D. Higher resolution over a limited range
17.

Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be followed by more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?

A. Wheel transducer
B. Focused transducer
C. Paintbrush transducer
D. Ball transducer
Answer» C. Paintbrush transducer
18.

A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:

A. Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface
B. Using a lower energy pulser
C. Using a higher amplifier attenuation setting
D. Huygen's principle
Answer» A. Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface
19.

Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an ultrasonic test?

A. Use a shorter wavelength
B. Use a lower frequency transducer
C. Change from longitudinal waves to shear waves
D. Change to a coarser grained test piece
Answer» B. Use a lower frequency transducer
20.

When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in materials with similar impedance, surface finish and attenuation:

A. The flaw is never larger than the flat bottom hole
B. The flaw is never smaller than the flat bottom hole
C. The flaw is always smaller than the flat bottom hole
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
21.

An advantage of immersion testing is that:

A. Large parts are easily inspected
B. Most test systems are easily transported in the field
C. High test frequencies may be used
D. Most test systems are not easily transported in the field
Answer» C. High test frequencies may be used
22.

An advantage of immersion testing is that:

A. Large parts may be easily inspected
B. Most test systems are easily transported in the field
C. Low test frequencies may be used
D. Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined
Answer» D. Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined
23.

An ultrasonic data display which shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:

A. A scan
B. B scan
C. C scan
D. Orthogonal view
Answer» C. C scan
24.

An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flaws which are found are called:

A. A scan
B. B scan
C. C scan
D. Orthogonal view
Answer» B. B scan
25.

An ultrasonic display which shows echo locations and amplitude is called:

A. A scan
B. B scan
C. C scan
D. Orthogonal view
Answer» A. A scan
26.

An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:

A. Near surface resolution is improved
B. Sensitivity to small discontinuities is improved
C. Beam spread is reduced
D. Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved
Answer» D. Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved
27.

A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near surface resolution problems is to:

A. Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications
B. Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits
C. Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse
D. Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a ‘dead
Answer» B. Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits
28.

When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall echo?

A. Use a wetter transducer
B. Use a lower frequency transducer
C. Use a transducer with a narrower bandwidth
D. Use a higher frequency transducer
Answer» B. Use a lower frequency transducer
29.

Materials which can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:

A. Steel, cast iron and concrete
B. Titanium, wood and aluminium
C. Magnesium, titanium and steel
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Magnesium, titanium and steel
30.

When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be inspected for possible near surface discontinuities by:

A. Using a lower frequency transducer
B. Using a higher pulse energy
C. Inspecting from the opposite side
D. Calibrating on a smaller diameter flat bottom hole
Answer» C. Inspecting from the opposite side
31.

Forging bursts are most often orientated:

A. Parallel to the surface
B. Perpendicular to the surface
C. In a random manner
D. At an angle of 45 degrees to the surface
Answer» C. In a random manner
32.

The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:

A. To make sure the bath is wet
B. To reduce corrosive properties of the bath
C. To eliminate air bubbles in the bath
D. To prevent rust
Answer» C. To eliminate air bubbles in the bath
33.

During immersion testing of pipe or tubing the incident longitudinal wave angle must be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:

A. To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece
B. To prevent formation of Rayleigh waves
C. To prevent formation of shear waves
D. To avoid saturating the test piece with ultrasound
Answer» A. To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece
34.

A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a transducer position such as:

A. I.D. and O.D. notches produce equal responses for equivalent metal path distances
B. Rayleigh waves are generated through the entire pipe or tubing wall
C. All ultrasound enters the test piece
D. Only longitudinal waves are generated in the test piece
Answer» C. All ultrasound enters the test piece
35.

During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused by:

A. Dirt on the test piece
B. Grease on the test piece
C. Air bubbles on the test piece
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
36.

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete are:

A. 25 to 100 kHz
B. 200 to 5 MHz
C. 1 MHz to 5 MHz
D. 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz
Answer» A. 25 to 100 kHz
37.

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and non-ferrous welds are:

A. 25 to 100 kHz
B. 200 to 5 MHz
C. 1 MHz to 5 MHz
D. 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz
Answer» C. 1 MHz to 5 MHz
38.

Which of the following materials would probably require testing at the lowest frequency?

A. Small grained mild steel
B. Mild steel castings
C. Mild steel forgings
D. Cast iron
Answer» D. Cast iron
39.

Which of the following is an advantage of contact testing over immersion?

A. Ability to maintain uniform coupling on rough surface
B. Longer dead time near the front surface of the test piece
C. Ease of field use
D. Ability to continuously vary incident wave angle during test
Answer» C. Ease of field use
40.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of contact testing?

A. Ability to maintain uniform coupling on rough surface
B. Ease of field use
C. Greater penetrating power than immersion testing
D. Less penetrating power than immersion testing
Answer» A. Ability to maintain uniform coupling on rough surface
41.

A typical application for a through transmission technique is:

A. Flaw depth sizing
B. Flaw depth location
C. Thickness gauging
D. Bond/unbond testing
Answer» D. Bond/unbond testing
42.

An ultrasonic technique in which two transducers are used, in a constant position relative to each other, is:

A. Through transmission
B. Contact testing
C. Pulse echo
D. Continuous wave
Answer» A. Through transmission
43.

Which of the following cast materials could most likely be successfully ultrasonically tested?

A. Low carbon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Iron
D. Pure lead
Answer» A. Low carbon steel
44.

Which of the following product forms would probably be tested at the lowest frequency?

A. Forgings
B. Hot rolled plate
C. Castings
D. Extrusions
Answer» C. Castings
45.

Addition of approximately 6% antimony as an alloying element could be expected to increase the ultrasonic inspectability of which of the following materials?

A. Low carbon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Iron
D. Pure lead
Answer» D. Pure lead
46.

Strong signals which travel across the horizontal time base of an A scan presentation while the transducer is motionless on the test piece are probably:

A. Randomly oriented flaws
B. Electrical interference
C. Grain noise
D. Loose wedge on transducer
Answer» B. Electrical interference
47.

Excessive ringing of the transducer could be caused by:

A. Electrical interference
B. Loose crystal
C. Test piece with large grain size
D. Test piece with small grain size
Answer» B. Loose crystal
48.

When inspecting a long bar with a longitudinal wave from one end, a series of additional echoes are seen immediately after the bottom surface reflection. these are most likely:

A. Refracted shear and longitudinal waves caused by beam spread
B. Flaw indications
C. Multiples of the back surface reflection
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
49.

One of the most apparent characteristics of a discontinuity echo, as opposed to a nonrelevant indication is:

A. Lack of repeatability
B. Sharp, distinct signal
C. Stable position with fixed transducer position
D. High noise level
Answer» B. Sharp, distinct signal
50.

Typical immersion test frequencies for wrought aluminium are:

A. 10 MHz and up
B. 5 MHz and below
C. 500 MHz to 1 MHz
D. Above 25 MHz
Answer» A. 10 MHz and up
51.

Choice of ultrasonic test frequency depends upon which of the following?

A. Surface condition
B. Minimum size discontinuity to be detected
C. Level of grain noise
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
52.

Polished, flat surfaces are undesirable for ultrasonic testing consideration because:

A. Coupling losses are greater
B. Scan speeds tend to be too rapid
C. Spurious lamb waves are prevalent
D. The probe sticks to the surface because of suction
Answer» D. The probe sticks to the surface because of suction
53.

The most effective liquid ultrasonic couplant (highest acoustic impedance) is:

A. SAE 30 motor oil
B. Glycerine
C. Water
D. Grease
Answer» B. Glycerine
54.

When using a straight beam technique to examine a thick test piece what change(s) would you expect to see in back wall echo size as you approach the side of the test piece? (Transducer remains completely on test piece)

A. No change
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D. Depends on material acoustic velocity
Answer» C. Decrease
55.

What useful purpose may be served by maintaining grass on the baseline?

A. To estimate casting grain size
B. To provide a reference for estimating signal to noise ratio
C. To verify adequate coupling to the test piece
D. All of the above
Answer» C. To verify adequate coupling to the test piece
56.

Which of the following describes the sound field propagating in a piece of steel bar stock which is being tested from one end with longitudinal waves?

A. Non uniform, containing maxima and minima because of the focusing effect of laterally reflected waves
B. Increasing to a peak, then decreasing throughout the far field
C. Uniformly decreasing along the length of the bar
D. Decreasing according to the inverse square law
Answer» D. Decreasing according to the inverse square law
57.

When a probe is coupled to a solid, strong surface waves may be produced:

A. If a high frequency probe is used
B. If the probe has only incomplete contact with the surface
C. If the probe is large in diameter
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
58.

To avoid interfering surface waves, low frequencies should only be used on:

A. Polished surfaces
B. Castings
C. Flat surfaces
D. Non-polished surfaces
Answer» B. Castings
59.

Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause strong, interfering surface waves?

A. High frequency transducers
B. Testing on a small diameter surface
C. Testing on a flat surface
D. Testing on a curved surface with a contoured wedge and transducer
Answer» D. Testing on a curved surface with a contoured wedge and transducer
60.

Flaw sizing by the 6 dB drop technique is applicable to:

A. Large flaws relative to the sound beam
B. Small flaws relative to the sound beam
C. Any flaws
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Large flaws relative to the sound beam
61.

How many decibels of attenuation correspond to an ultrasonic signal loss of from 100% to 25% on full screen height?

A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer» C. 12
62.

An increase in gain of how many decibels corresponds to a 5:1 increase in flaw echo amplitude?

A. 10
B. 14
C. 6
D. 20
Answer» B. 14
63.

A focused sound beam is produced by a:

A. Convex mirror
B. Concave transducer
C. Convex lens
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Concave transducer
64.

A divergent sound beam is produced by:

A. Concave mirror
B. Convex mirror
C. Convex lens
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Convex lens
65.

A type of cast iron which has ultrasonic properties similar to steel is:

A. White
B. Gray
C. Lamellar
D. Ductile
Answer» A. White
66.

What effect does hardening have on acoustic velocity in steel?

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No effect
D. Any of the above
Answer» C. No effect
67.

Variation in acoustic velocity from one type of steel to another is usually less than:

A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 10%
Answer» A. 1%
68.

In general, which of the following materials would have the least ultrasonic attenuation?

A. Aluminium
B. Silver
C. Lead
D. Tungsten
Answer» A. Aluminium
69.

The velocity of lamb waves depends on:

A. Elastic constants of test material
B. Plate thickness
C. Frequency
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
70.

Which of the following is the most durable piezoelectric material?

A. Barium titanate
B. Quartz
C. Dipotassoium tartrate
D. Rochelle salt
Answer» B. Quartz
71.

Which of the following methods are used to produce ultrasonic waves?

A. Magnetostrictive methods
B. Magnetoinductive methods
C. Piezoelectric elements
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
72.

Spurious indications may be caused by which of the following?

A. Test piece edges
B. Mode conversions
C. Multiple reflections from a single interface
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
73.

A reason for using a dual element search unit is:

A. Improving near surface resolution
B. Improving penetration
C. Eliminating wear on the crystal faces
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Improving near surface resolution
74.

A wheel transducer is normally considered:

A. A contact method
B. A dynamic scanning method
C. An immersion method
D. A static scanning method
Answer» C. An immersion method
75.

Which of the following is not an advantage of a focused transducer?

A. High sensitivity to small flaws
B. Deep penetration
C. High resolving power
D. Not much affected by surface roughness
Answer» B. Deep penetration
76.

What type of search unit allows the greatest resolving power with standard ultrasonic testing equipment?

A. Delay tip
B. Focused
C. Highly damped
D. High Q
Answer» B. Focused
77.

The 50 mm diameter hole in an IIW block is used to:

A. Determine the beam index point
B. Check resolution
C. Calibrate angle beam distance
D. Check beam angle
Answer» D. Check beam angle
78.

The 100 mm radius in an IIW block is used to:

A. Calibrate sensitivity level
B. Check resolution
C. Calibrate angle beam distance
D. Check beam angle
Answer» C. Calibrate angle beam distance
79.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of immersion test units?

A. Inspection speed
B. Ease of controlling sound beam direction
C. Portability
D. Application to automatic scanning techniques
Answer» C. Portability
80.

Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a mode?

A. Longitudinal wave
B. Shear wave
C. Surface wave
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
81.

Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?

A. Determination of a material’s elastic modulus
B. Study of a material’s metallurgical structure
C. Measurement of a material’s thickness
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
82.

Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are called:

A. Longitudinal waves
B. Shear waves
C. Lamb waves
D. Rayleigh waves
Answer» A. Longitudinal waves
83.

The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:

A. Longitudinal waves
B. Shear waves
C. Rayleigh waves
D. Plate waves
Answer» A. Longitudinal waves
84.

In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of vibration?

A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface wave
D. Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material
Answer» A. Longitudinal
85.

The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly irregular surface is called:

A. Angulation
B. Dispersion
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
Answer» D. Diffraction
86.

Acoustic impedance is a material's:

A. (Density)/(velocity)
B. (Density) × (velocity)
C. Refractive index
D. (Density)/(refractive index)
Answer» B. (Density) × (velocity)
87.

When a sound beam is incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than normal incidence, which of the following occurs?

A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Mode conversion
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
88.

The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface between the two media is called:

A. The angle of incidence
B. The angle of refraction
C. The angle of diffraction
D. The angle of reflection
Answer» B. The angle of refraction
89.

Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic attenuation losses?

A. 1 MHz
B. 2.25 MHz
C. 10 MHz
D. 25 MHz
Answer» D. 25 MHz
90.

Attenuation is made up of:

A. Diffusion and absorption
B. Scatter and reflection
C. Absorption and scatter
D. Reflection at grain boundaries
Answer» C. Absorption and scatter
91.

The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test results is:

A. The ultrasonic signal amplitude
B. A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction
C. A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics
D. The ultrasonic signal location
Answer» B. A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction
92.

A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:

A. Scatter of sound beam due to microstructure of test object
B. Increased grain noise or ‘hash’
C. Less beam spread
D. Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface
Answer» D. Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface
93.

Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:

A. Quartz
B. Lithium sulphate
C. Lead metaniobate
D. Barium titanate
Answer» A. Quartz
94.

Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?

A. Quartz
B. Lithium sulphate
C. Lead metaniobate
D. Barium titanate
Answer» D. Barium titanate
95.

The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound pressure occur is mostly affected by:

A. The frequency of the transducer
B. The diameter of the transducer
C. The length of transducer cable
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer» D. Both (a) and (b)
96.

An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:

A. Higher sensitivity to small discontinuities
B. Less likelihood of spurious echoes
C. Greater likelihood of spurious echoes
D. Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities
Answer» D. Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities
97.

Resolution is inversely proportional to:

A. Wavelength
B. Crystal thickness
C. Bandwidth
D. Mechanical losses
Answer» B. Crystal thickness
98.

Of the piezoelectric materials listed below, the most efficient sound transmitter is:

A. Lithium sulphate
B. Quartz
C. Barium titanate
D. Silver oxide
Answer» C. Barium titanate
99.

Other factors being equal, which of the following transducers would have the greatest beam spread?

A. A larger diameter transducer
B. A smaller diameter transducer
C. A higher frequency transducer
D. None of the above has any effect
Answer» B. A smaller diameter transducer
100.

The fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric crystal is primarily a function of:

A. The length of the applied voltage pulse
B. The amplifying characteristics of the pulse amplifier in the instrument
C. The thickness of the crystal
D. None of the above
Answer» C. The thickness of the crystal
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