More MCQs
1.

In which part of the vapour compression cycle there is abrupt change in pressure and temperature

A. Drier
B. Solenoid valve
C. Expansion valve
D. The change is gradual throughout the cycle
E. Evaporator
Answer» C. Expansion valve
2.

The ratio of sensible heat to total heat is known as

A. Relative humidity
B. Humidification ratio
C. Sensible heat factor
D. Specific humidity
E. Dew point
Answer» C. Sensible heat factor
3.

The flow of the refrigerant in a refrigeration cycle is controlled by

A. Copper tubing
B. Compressor
C. Expansion valve
D. Evaporator
E. Condenser
Answer» C. Expansion valve
4.

The refrigerant used for the air-conditioning of passenger aircraft cabin is

A. Air
B. Carbondioxide
C. Freon 11
D. Ammonia
E. Freon 12
Answer» B. Carbondioxide
5.

Under increased atmospheric pressure (as compared to the standard conditions) the steam will condense at

A. 100?C
B. More than 100?C
C. Depends on other conditions
D. Less than 100?C
E. Has nothing to do with pressure
Answer» B. More than 100?C
6.

Which refrigerant has the highest critical point temperature?

A. Ammonia
B. Freon 11
C. Freon 12
D. Freon 22
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Freon 11
7.

The ratio of high temperature to low temperature for reversed Carnot refrigerator is 1.25. The COP will be

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. All of the above
Answer» C. 4
8.

When the higher temperature is fixed, the COP of a refrigerating machine can be improved by

A. Operating the machine at higher speeds
B. Operating the machine at lower speeds
C. Raising the higher temperature
D. Lowering the higher temperature
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Raising the higher temperature
9.

A reversed Carnot cycle has a COP of 4. The ratio of higher temperature to lower temperature will be

A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 1.25
D. 2.5
E. None of the above
Answer» C. 1.25
10.

A plate of vane used to direct or control movement of fluid or air within the confined area is known as

A. Baffle
B. Bellows
C. Regulator
D. Diffuser
E. None of the above
Answer» A. Baffle
11.

The leaks of refrigerant from a cycle may be detected by

A. Halide torch test
B. Sulphur candle test
C. Soap and water test
D. Any of above
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Any of above
12.

Super-conductors

A. Cannot be magnetised at low temperatures
B. Can be rubbed with other superconductors without frictional effects at low temperatures
C. Offer no resistance to flow of electricity at low remperatures
D. Offer no resistance to flow of heat at low temperatures
E. Offer no resistance to flow of fluids at low temperatures
Answer» C. Offer no resistance to flow of electricity at low remperatures
13.

A desicant is

A. A process of removing heat under controlled conditions
B. A substance which reduces the viscosity of liquids
C. A solid substance capable of removing moisture from a gas, liquid or solid
D. Anammonia and a water solution
E. Heat given off by cargo
Answer» C. A solid substance capable of removing moisture from a gas, liquid or solid
14.

A device designed to remove moisture from a refrigerant is called

A. Dehumidifier
B. Drier
C. Solenoid
D. Expansion valve
E. Humidstat
Answer» B. Drier
15.

The difference between wet and dry bulb temperatures

A. Increases at atmospheric temperature
B. Increases as air gets wet
C. Increases as air gets drier
D. remains constant always
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Increases as air gets drier
16.

In a vapour compression cycle the vapour as it leaves the compressor is

A. In liquid form
B. Wet vapour
C. Dry vapour
D. Dry and saturated vapour
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Dry and saturated vapour
17.

Refrigerant No. 717 is

A. Ammonia
B. Freon 12
C. Carbondioxide
D. Freon 22
E. Methyl chloride
Answer» A. Ammonia
18.

In a domestic refrigerator if the compressor runs continuously, it shows that

A. The system is working perfectly all right
B. The refrigeration is to full capacity
C. The system is overloaded
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer» C. The system is overloaded
19.

The ability of an evaporator to absorb heat does not depends on

A. Temperature difference between the evaporator and the surrounding air
B. Its size, surface condition and material
C. Kind of refrigerant used
D. Velocity of turbulence
E. Compressor speed
Answer» C. Kind of refrigerant used
20.

pH value of a brine solution is

A. More than
B. 14
C. 70
D. Less than 7
E. Could be any value
Answer» E. Could be any value
21.

In case of freon as refrigerant the pipe lines should be of

A. Copper
B. Brass
C. Seamless steel tubes
D. Stainless steel tubes
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Seamless steel tubes
22.

When Freon 12 is used as a refrigerant in vapour compression cycle, the mass circulated per ton of refrigerating effect will be nearly

A. 1.8 kg
B. 0.5 kg
C. 12 kg
D. 1 kg
E. 0.2 kg
Answer» A. 1.8 kg
23.

In control cooling water system, chromates, phosphates and silicates are added to water

A. To remove odour
B. To increase remove foreign particle
C. To inhibit corrosion
D. To prevent scale formation
E. To prevent algae growth
Answer» C. To inhibit corrosion
24.

In a psychrometric chart horizontal line indicate

A. Percentage humidity
B. Dew point temperature
C. Wet bulb temperature
D. Relative humidity
E. Dry bulb temperature
Answer» B. Dew point temperature
25.

In a mechanical refrigeration system the highest temperature of refrigerant occurs

A. Between condenser and evaporator
B. In evaporator
C. Before expansion valve
D. Between compressor and condenser
E. Before expansion valve
Answer» D. Between compressor and condenser
26.

Which of the following refrigerant has the freezing point?

A. Ammonia
B. Carbondioxide
C. Freon 11
D. Freon 22
E. All of the above
Answer» D. Freon 22
27.

Dehumidification means

A. Removing humidity from a space
B. Reducing the quantity of water vapour in a space
C. Reducing the moisture content of a substance
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Reducing the moisture content of a substance
28.

In a refrigeration system a condenser

A. Receives liquid refrigerant and supplies liquid refrigerant
B. Receives vapour refrigerant and supplies vapour refrigerant
C. Receives vapour refrigerant and supplies liquid refrigerant
D. Receives liquid refrigerant and supplies liquid refrigerant
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Receives vapour refrigerant and supplies liquid refrigerant
29.

Dry ice is

A. Free from water
B. Free from dissolved air or gases
C. Does not contain impurities
D. Solidified form of carbondioxide
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Solidified form of carbondioxide
30.

A refrigerating machine working on Reversed Carnot cycle takes out 2 kW per minute of heat from the system while working between temperature limits of 300?K and 200?K. The C.O.P. and power consumed by the cycle will be

A. 2. 1 kW
B. 1, 2 kW
C. 1,1 kW
D. 0, 0 kW
E. 2, 2 kW
Answer» A. 2. 1 kW
31.

In halide torch test if there is leakage of refrigerant, the colour of flame with change to

A. Violet or orange
B. Red or pink
C. Blue or bright green
D. Black or grey
E. Yellow
Answer» C. Blue or bright green
32.

If the discharge pressure of a refrigeration compressor is too high it shows

A. Too little or to warm condenser water
B. Lack of refrigerant
C. Excessive cooling load
D. Lack of compressor lubrication
E. Any of the above
Answer» B. Lack of refrigerant
33.

Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed

A. Before compressor
B. Between condenser and evaporator
C. Between condenser and expansion vlve
D. Between compressor and condenser
E. Could be installed anywhere
Answer» D. Between compressor and condenser
34.

If a refrigerator compressor cuts out on starter overloads the probable reason could be

A. Low line voltage
B. Suction pressure high
C. Discharge pressure high
D. Compressor tight
E. Any of the above
Answer» E. Any of the above
35.

In electrolus refrigerator

A. Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
B. Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
C. Hydrogen is absorbed in water
D. Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
E. Ammonia is absorbed in water
Answer» B. Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
36.

A condenser removes from the refrigerant

A. Sensible heat only
B. Latent heat only
C. Sensile heat and latent heat
D. Partly sensible heat and latent heat
E. None of the above
Answer» A. Sensible heat only
37.

During dehumidification process

A. Relative humidity decreases
B. Relative humidity does not change
C. Specific humidity decreases
D. Relative humidity increases
E. Specific humidity increases
Answer» A. Relative humidity decreases
38.

In a refrigerator evaporator is located

A. Inside the refrigerator cabinet
B. Adjacent to compressor
C. On the side of condenser
D. On the bottom of refrigerator cabinet
E. Behind the refrigerator cabinet
Answer» A. Inside the refrigerator cabinet
39.

In case of wet bulb depression is zero, it can be concluded that

A. Rain is likely to occur
B. Storm is likely to hit the place
C. Relative humidity is zero
D. Relative humidity is 100%
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Relative humidity is 100%
40.

Freon type (halocarbons) refrigerants are

A. Poisonous
B. Coloured
C. Have peculiar odour
D. Irritating
E. Non-poisonous
Answer» E. Non-poisonous
41.

Brine is always used as a secondary refrigerant in

A. Cold storage plant
B. Milk chilling plant
C. Cinema hall air conditioning plants
D. Ice plant
E. All of the above
Answer» D. Ice plant
42.

The bulk of tubes at the back of the domestic refrigerator are

A. Condenser tubes
B. Evaporator tubes
C. Capillary tubes
D. Throttling device
E. Refrigerant cooling tubes
Answer» A. Condenser tubes
43.

Out of the following refrigerants which one will provide highest compressor displacement per tonne of refrigeration in a vapour compression system operating between fixed temperatures

A. Freon 22
B. Carbondioxide
C. Freon 11
D. Freon 12
E. Ammonia
Answer» C. Freon 11
44.

Which of the following has lowest COP?

A. Vapour compression cycle using wet compression
B. Vapour compression cycle with superheated vapour at the end of compression
C. Vapour absorption cycle
D. Vapour compression cycle using dry compression
E. All the refrigerants have identical specific volume
Answer» C. Vapour absorption cycle
45.

The performance of an evaporative condenser largely depends on

A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Hot water temperature
D. Ambient temperature
E. Air conditioned room temperature
Answer» A. Wet bulb temperature
46.

The rate of evaporation of water will be low when

A. Rate of evaporation does not depend on relative humidity
B. Sensible heat factor
C. Relative humidity is high
D. Reactive humidity is zero
E. Relative humidity is less than 50%
Answer» C. Relative humidity is high
47.

Dry bulb temperature depends on

A. Humidity of air
B. Water vapour content of air
C. Condition of air
D. All above
E. None of the above
Answer» E. None of the above
48.

In a psychrometric chart vertical lines indicate

A. Dew point temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Wet bulb temperature
D. Percentage humidity
E. Relative humidity
Answer» B. Dry bulb temperature
49.

In case of completely dry air

A. Total heat is same as latent heat
B. Total heat is same as sensible heat
C. Total heat is sum of sensible heat and latent heat
D. Total heat is sum of sensible heat required for all individual constituents
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Total heat is same as sensible heat
50.

When the lower temperature is fixed, the COP of a refrigerating machine can be improved by

A. Operating the machine at higher speeds
C. Raising the higher temperature
D. Lowering the higher temperature
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Lowering the higher temperature
51.

Water is used as a refrigerant in

A. Vapour absorption cycle
B. Steam jet refrigeration
C. Vapour absorption cycle
D. Cascade system
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Steam jet refrigeration
52.

During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air

A. Dry bulb temperature remains constant
B. Wet bulb temperature remains constant
C. Dew point temperature remains constant
D. Relative humidity remains constant
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Wet bulb temperature remains constant
53.

In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, high head pressure is indicated which does not change even when compressor is stopped and allowed to cool. The probable cause may be

A. High refrigerant charge
B. Low refrigerant charge
C. Air in the system
D. High vapour pressure
E. Any of the above
Answer» C. Air in the system
54.

A critical temperature is the temperature

A. Below which gas is always liquefied
B. Above which a gas will never be liquefied
C. Below which a gas does not obey gas laws
D. Above which a gas may explode
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Above which a gas will never be liquefied
55.

A Salinometer

A. Measure intensity of illumination
B. Measures temperatures in cryogenic regions
C. Measures solar radiation
D. Measures sound level
E. Measures density of brine
Answer» E. Measures density of brine
56.

In cooling towers the heat is dissipated mainly by

A. Freezing
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
E. Evaporation
Answer» E. Evaporation
57.

Capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range

A. 1 to 3 tonnes
B. 7 to 10 tonnes
C. 0.1 to 0.3 tonnes
D. 3 to 5 tonnes
E. 5 to 7 tonnes
Answer» C. 0.1 to 0.3 tonnes
58.

If a refrigerator is directly exposed to sun rays

A. It will stop working
B. The refrigerant will leak
C. There will be less cooling effect
D. Frost will be formed on cabinet surface
E. (A) and (B) above
Answer» C. There will be less cooling effect
59.

A refrigerating system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The higher temperature of the refrigerant in the system is 40?C and the lower is - 15?C. The capacity is to be 10 tons. Neglecting all losses, the coefficient of performance of the system would be

A. 2.67
B. 3.75
C. 9.41
D. 4.69
E. 7.36
Answer» D. 4.69
60.

As warm air cools, its

A. Relative humidity increases
B. Relative humidity decreases
C. There is no effect on moisture holding capacity
D. Capacity to hold moisture increases
E. Dew point occurs
Answer» B. Relative humidity decreases
61.

In a small vapour compression cycle using capillary tubing for expansion, if suddenly uncondensed vapours enter the tubing, the result will be

A. Improved refrigerating capacity
B. Loss in refrigerating capacity
C. Supply of superheated vapour to compressor
D. Choking of drier
E. All of the above
Answer» B. Loss in refrigerating capacity
62.

In which section of a vapour compression system, the refrigerant is generally in the form of a wet vapour?

A. Condenser outlet
B. Expansion valve
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor
E. Condenser inlet
Answer» C. Evaporator
63.

In a vapour absorption system as compared to vapour compression system, the compressor is replaced by

A. Receiver
B. Expansion valve
C. Evaporator
D. Conderser
E. Absorber and generator
Answer» E. Absorber and generator
64.

In a refrigerating system work done per kg of air is 20 kcal and heat extracted per kg of air is 25 kcal. The quantity of refrigerant used is 10 kg. The coefficient of performance of the system would be

A. 0.8
B. 12.5
C. 5
D. 8
E. 1.25
Answer» E. 1.25
65.

If a one ton refrigeration machine, the significance of term "One ton" is that

A. One ton of water can be converted into ice
B. One ton of ice when melts from and at 0?C in 24 hours the refrigeration effect equivalent to that
C. One ton water can be stored at a time
D. One ton is the total weight of equipment
E. One ton of refrigerant is used
Answer» B. One ton of ice when melts from and at 0?C in 24 hours the refrigeration effect equivalent to that
66.

The change in temperature resulting from a gas expanding from one constant pressure, with no heat transfer and no external work other than to maintain the constant pressure is known as

A. Dalton's law of partial pressures
B. Kinetic theory of gases
C. Avogadro's hypothesis
D. Joule - Thomoson effect
E. Law of conservation of energy
Answer» D. Joule - Thomoson effect
67.

Anhydrous substance is

A. Free of hydrogen and other chemicals containing hydrogen
B. Dry substance
C. Free of humidity
D. Free of hydrogen
E. Free of water especially water of crystallization
Answer» E. Free of water especially water of crystallization
68.

No refrigerator using reversed Carnot cycle has been constructed because

A. It is uneconomical
B. It is less efficient
C. It requires bulky machines
D. 9.41
E. Isentropic portions of cycle require low speeds whereas isothermal protuons require high speeds
Answer» A. It is uneconomical
69.

The statement: If a maximum of gases or vapours is enclosed in a container, each will exert its own pressure on the container entirely independent of the others and the total absolute pressure will be equal to the sum of the partial pressure exerted by each of the gases. This statement is known as

A. Newton's law of gases
B. Kinetic theory of gases
C. Avogadro's hypothesis
D. Fick's law
E. Dalton's law of partial pressures.
Answer» E. Dalton's law of partial pressures.
70.

Defrosting of evaporators is done because

A. Frosting increases refrigerating effect
B. Frosting retards heat flow
C. Frosting is undersirable
D. Frosting obstructs flow of refrigerant
E. Frosting may cause damage to equipment
Answer» B. Frosting retards heat flow
71.

No liquid can exist as a liquid at

A. 100?C
B. Zero pressure
C. Zero viscosity
D. 0?C
E. 10,000 m height above the surface of earth
Answer» B. Zero pressure
72.

Dischloromono fluoroethane is

A. Freon 11
B. Freon 12
C. Freon 21
D. Freon 22
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Freon 22
73.

In a refrigeration system, if the compressor short cycles, the probable cause could be

A. Intermittent contact in electric control circuit
B. Dirty or iced evaporator
C. Lack of refrigerant
D. Overchange of refrigerant
E. Any of the above
Answer» E. Any of the above
74.

Reversed Carnot cycle assumes that all processes in the cycle are

A. Non-flow only
B. 10,000 m height above the surface of earth
C. Transient flow
D. Non flow or steady flow
E. Steady flow only
Answer» D. Non flow or steady flow
75.

Which of the following valves is used on domestic refrigerators

A. Solenoid valve
B. Expansion valve
C. Spring safety valve
D. Wheel valve
E. None of the above
Answer» E. None of the above
76.

A thermometer installed, in a vapour compression ammonia system, after the condenser shows elevated reading than the normal. It shows that

A. Condenser needs cleaning
B. Cooling tower or spray pond not handling the load properly
C. Uneven water distribution over the condensing surfaces
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Any of the above
77.

One a psychrometric chart cooling and humidification process using spray can be shown by

A. A line parallel to wet bulb temperature lines
B. A curve
C. A line parallel to dry bulb temperature lines
D. A horizontal line
E. A vertical line
Answer» A. A line parallel to wet bulb temperature lines
78.

In a vapour compression cycle the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is in

A. Liquid form
B. Wet vapour form
C. Dry vapour form
D. Dry and saturated vapour form
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Wet vapour form
79.

If wet bulb temperature is same as dew point, the relative humidity of air will be

A. 0
B. 25
C. 67
D. 100
E. 50
Answer» D. 100
80.

A plant has one 300 ton and one 500 ton centrifugal unit. The total flow of brine is 6400 litres per minute. What should be the distribution of brine flow through each unit

A. 3200 litres each
B. 2400 litres through 300 ton plant and 4000 litres through 500 ton plant
C. 4000 litres through 300 ton plant and 2400 litres through 500 ton plant
D. Same brine should flow through both
E. None of the above
Answer» C. 4000 litres through 300 ton plant and 2400 litres through 500 ton plant
81.

Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest specific volume?

A. Ammonia
B. Freon 22
C. All the refrigerants have identical specific volume
D. Freon 12
E. Carbondioxide
Answer» E. Carbondioxide
82.

Which of the following refrigerant compressor is not classified as positive displacement compressor

A. Reciprocating compressor
B. Centrifugal compressor
C. Rotary compressor
D. Screw compressor
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Centrifugal compressor
83.

Class II group of refrigerants absorb sensible heat while giving refrigeration effect. Which of the following is a class II refrigerant

A. Ammonia
B. Carbondioxide
C. Freon 12
D. Methyl chloride
E. All of the above
Answer» D. Methyl chloride
84.

The critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

A. Below which a liquid will always be in vapour form
B. Above which a liquid will remain a liquid
C. Above which a liquid will always turn into a vapour
D. Above which a liquid will explode
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Above which a liquid will remain a liquid
85.

Frost on cooling coils

A. Increases heat transfer
B. Reduces evaporator temperature
C. Improves COP of the system
D. Acts as an insulation, increasing power consumption
E. Reduces power consumption
Answer» D. Acts as an insulation, increasing power consumption
86.

The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator as compared to that of an air conditioner is gererally

A. Less
B. Cannot be compared
C. More
D. Air conditioner performance depends on whether conditions
E. Same
Answer» A. Less
87.

The leakage in a refrigeration system using freon is detected by

A. Acetylene torch
B. Halide torch
C. Sulphur stricks
D. Soap and water
E. Any of the above
Answer» B. Halide torch
88.

The critical temperature for Freon 12 is

A. Above 100?C
B. Less than - 50?C
C. Around - 20?C
D. 0?C
E. Around 50?C
Answer» A. Above 100?C
89.

In a vapour compression cycle the lowest temperature occurs in

A. Evaporator
B. Expansion valve
C. Condenser
D. Receiver
E. Compressor
Answer» A. Evaporator
90.

If dry bulb temperature is 25?C and wet bulb temperature is 18?C, then which of the following temperatures could possibly represent dew point?

A. 14?C
B. 25?C
C. 40?C
D. 43?C
E. 18?C
Answer» A. 14?C
91.

The effect of under cooling the refrigerant is to

A. Reducing the COP of the cycle
B. Increase the COP of the cycle
C. Reduce the refrigerating effect
D. Increase the super heat of vapour
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Increase the COP of the cycle
92.

Clear ice

A. Is pure ice
B. Contains dissolved air
C. Contains dissolved gases
D. Is produced by blowing air during freezing
E. None of the above
Answer» D. Is produced by blowing air during freezing
93.

Two thermometers are constructed in the same way except that one has a spherical bulb and the other an elongated cylindrical bulb. Which one will respond quickly to temperature change?

A. Spherical bulb thermometer
B. Cylindrical bulb thermometer
C. Both will respond in identical manner
D. Cannot be ascertained on the basis of information provided
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Cylindrical bulb thermometer
94.

A low wet bulb temperature indicates

A. Very cool air
B. Very low humidity
C. Very low atmospheric temperature
D. (A) and (B) above
E. (A) and (C) above
Answer» D. (A) and (B) above
95.

On a psychrometric chart sensible heating or cooling is represented by

A. A horizontal line
B. A vertical line
C. Inclined line
D. Curved line
E. None of the above
Answer» A. A horizontal line
96.

During sensible heating of air

A. Dry bulb temperature increases while enthalpy of moist air decreases
B. 10,000 m height above the surface of earth
C. Both dry bulb temperature as well as enthalpy decrease
D. Both dry bulb temperature as well as enthalpy increase
E. Dry bulb temperature decreases while enthalpy of moist air increases
Answer» D. Both dry bulb temperature as well as enthalpy increase
97.

Air and other non-condensable gases (foul gases) get into a refrigeration system through

A. Decomposition of refrigerant in contact with impurities
B. Breakdown of oil
C. Under vacuum operation or during maintenance work
D. Corrosion
E. Any of the above
Answer» E. Any of the above
98.

Refrigerant 717 is

A. Freon 22
B. Air
C. Freon 12
D. Carbondioxide
E. Ammonia
Answer» E. Ammonia
99.

The relation between vapour pressure to the enthalpy of vaporisation is expressed in

A. Vander wall's equation
B. Energy equation
C. Maxwell's equation
D. Clausius Clapeyron equation
E. Lewis equation
Answer» D. Clausius Clapeyron equation
100.

For a sensible heating the air is passed over a heating coil which may be

A. Heated by electric resistance
B. Heated by passing hot water through the coil
C. Heated by passing steam through the coil
D. Heated by direct solar radiations
E. Heated by any of the above methods
Answer» E. Heated by any of the above methods
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