210+ Waste Water Treatment Solved MCQs

1.

___________ poisoning water in Japan is from fishes.

A. Bismuth
B. Arsenic
C. Antimony
D. Palladium
Answer» B. Arsenic
2.

Fishes can store more quantity of ___________ in their bodies.

A. Mercury
B. Bismuth
C. Palladium
D. Chlorine
Answer» A. Mercury
3.

Waste water released from _________ are not the sources of bacteria.

A. Sanitaria
B. Municipalities
C. Tanning
D. Industries
Answer» D. Industries
4.

Bacteria and micro organisms present in the water will cause _________ in human and animals.

A. Indigestion
B. Intestinal tract
C. Brain tumour
D. Cancer
Answer» B. Intestinal tract
5.

Infectious hepatitis is caused by ___________

A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Protozoa
D. Helminth
Answer» B. Viruses
6.

Amoebic dysentery is caused by ___________

A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Helminth
D. Protozoa
Answer» D. Protozoa
7.

Bacteria in water causes ________

A. Malaria
B. Typhoid
C. Dengue
D. Chicken guinea
Answer» B. Typhoid
8.

Helminth in the water causes __________

A. Hook worm
B. Amoebic dysentery
C. Cholera
D. Typhoid
Answer» A. Hook worm
9.

The ____________ is an important requirement of the aquatic life.

A. Dissolved nitrogen
B. Dissolved chlorine
C. Dissolved oxygen
D. Dissolved methane
Answer» C. Dissolved oxygen
10.

The optimum value in natural water is ________

A. 2-4ppm
B. 4-7ppm
C. 4-6ppm
D. 2-7ppm
Answer» C. 4-6ppm
11.

What is the full form of BOD?

A. Biochemical oxygen demand
B. Biological oxygen demand
C. Biometric oxygen deep water
D. Biological oxygen deep water
Answer» A. Biochemical oxygen demand
12.

The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the _________ in water. www.rejinpaul.comwww.rejinpaul.com Download updated materials from Rejinpaul Network App

A. Nitrogen depletion
B. Chlorine depletion
C. Oxygen depletion
D. Ozone depletion
Answer» C. Oxygen depletion
13.

The decomposition of the matter produces into ___________ and in presence of ____________

A. Carbondioxide and oxygen
B. Oxygen and nitrogen
C. Nitrogen and carbondioxide
D. Nitrogen and chlorine
Answer» A. Carbondioxide and oxygen
14.

The organic matter present in the water is of __________ types.

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer» A. Two
15.

The temperature of sewage increases. What will be the effect on the dissolved oxygen in sewage?

A. Remains constant
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D. No effect
Answer» C. Decrease
16.

What is the minimum quantity of dissolved oxygen that should be present in the treated sewage?

A. 6ppm
B. 4ppm
C. 1ppm
D. 10ppm
Answer» B. 4ppm
17.

The presence of which of the following in sewage indicates nitrogen content before decomposition of sewage?

A. Nitrites
B. Nitrates
C. Free ammonia
D. Albuminoid nitrogen
Answer» D. Albuminoid nitrogen
18.

The presence of free ammonia in sewage represents ____________

A. Air pollution
B. Old pollution
C. Recent pollution
D. Water pollution
Answer» C. Recent pollution
19.

Which chemical is used for the titration of waste water for finding its chloride content?

A. Potassium chloride
B. Sodium chloride
C. Potassium chromate
D. Potassium dichromate
Answer» C. Potassium chromate
20.

The type of solids which floats in sewage is __________

A. Suspended solids
B. Settleable solids
C. Dissolved solids
D. Total solids
Answer» A. Suspended solids
21.

The presence of which of the following indicates old pollution?

A. Nitrates
B. Nitrites
C. H2S
D. Sulfates
Answer» D. Sulfates
22.

________ is used to find the D.O content of sewage.

A. Winkler method
B. Chromatography
C. Kjeldahl method
D. Olfactometer
Answer» B. Chromatography
23.

The permissible dose of chloride in domestic sewage is __________

A. 120ppm
B. 10ppm
C. 1ppm
D. 250ppm
Answer» A. 120ppm
24.

Imhoff cone is used to measure the _______

A. Suspended solids
B. Settleable solids
C. Dissolved solids
D. Total solids
Answer» B. Settleable solids
25.

The decomposition of sewage takes place, causing a pungent smell. Which of the following causes the pungent smell?

A. CO2
B. H2SO4
C. HCL
D. H2S
Answer» D. H2S
26.

Which of the following disease is caused due to lack of nitrates?

A. Diphtheria
B. Methemoglobinemia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Meningitis
Answer» B. Methemoglobinemia
27.

The maximum quantity of dissolved oxygen present in wastewater is called __________

A. Saturated dissolved oxygen
B. Maximum dissolved oxygen
C. Optimal dissolved oxygen
D. Peak dissolved oxygen
Answer» A. Saturated dissolved oxygen
28.

Identify the odd one of the following.

A. Fatty acids
B. Chlorides
C. Cellulose
D. Fats
Answer» B. Chlorides
29.

The Clean Water Act (CWA) regulates __________

A. Discharge of pollutants into the waters of the United States
B. Discharge of pollutants into the waters of the United Kingdom
C. Discharge of pollutants into the air of the United States
D. Discharge of pollutants into the waters of India
Answer» A. Discharge of pollutants into the waters of the United States
30.

Section __________ of CWA regulates discharges of hazardous substances.

A. 311(b)(2)(B)
B. 311(b)(2)(A)
C. 312(b)(2)(A)
D. 311(b)(1)(A)
Answer» B. 311(b)(2)(A)
31.

The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 was the first major U.S. law to address water pollution.

A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
Answer» D. 1948
32.

The CWA reduced the amount of pollution from _________

A. Point sources
B. Non-point sources
C. Chemicals
D. Mining
Answer» A. Point sources
33.

The discharge of regulated chemicals into surface waters is controlled by __________

A. SARA
B. CERCLA
C. NPDES
D. PDAC
Answer» C. NPDES
34.

The maximum amount of pollution that each waterway could absorb is known as _________

A. TMDL
B. TSML
C. TDSML
D. TDS
Answer» A. TMDL
35.

__________ requires EPA to establish regulations to protect human health from contaminants present in drinking water.

A. SAWD
B. SDWA
C. ASAW
D. SWSA
Answer» B. SDWA
36.

Who is responsible for the clean-up of oil spill?

A. HWS
B. APS
C. Oil Pollution Act
D. SARA
Answer» C. Oil Pollution Act
37.

Which section of CWA regulates land disposal of sludge?

A. Section 402
B. Section 403
C. Section 404
D. Section 405
Answer» D. Section 405
38.

Which CWA program controls water pollution by regulating point sources?

A. SPCC
B. PCC
C. NPDES
D. PDA
Answer» C. NPDES
39.

Which section of CWA is responsible for monitoring of wetlands?

A. Section 402
B. Section 403
C. Section 404
D. Section 405
Answer» C. Section 404
40.

Which CWA program manages non-point source pollution?

A. NPSMP
B. NSPPP
C. NSGOP
D. NPSRA
Answer» A. NPSMP
41.

When did CWA come into existence?

A. 1970
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1973
Answer» C. 1972
42.

Which of the following is the physical monitoring of the lake?

A. PH
B. COD
C. BOD
D. Turbidity
Answer» D. Turbidity
43.

Conductivity comes under the ___________ monitoring of the lake.

A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Organic
Answer» A. Physical
44.

____________ comes under the chemical monitoring of the lake.

A. Detergents
B. Pathogens
C. Conductivity
D. Turbidity
Answer» A. Detergents
45.

Pollution enters into the water system in ___________ ways.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» D. 4
46.

A large amount of soil can move with the run off called ___________

A. Soil erosion
B. Soil conservation
C. Soil pollution
D. Soil moving
Answer» A. Soil erosion
47.

What is the full form of GAP?

A. Ganga action pre distribution
B. Ganga action plan
C. Ganga affected plan
D. Ganga affected pre distribution
Answer» B. Ganga action plan
48.

The central pollution control board and the department of ocean and environment has established __________ stations over the entire coastal line of the country.

A. 171
B. 172
C. 173
D. 174
Answer» D. 174
49.

Coastal water shows major differences in ___________

A. Pollution
B. Sewage
C. Salinity
D. Conductivity
Answer» C. Salinity
50.

Monitoring systems can be carried out by using __________

A. Motors
B. Automatic sensors
C. Automatic motors
D. Turbines
Answer» B. Automatic sensors
51.

Control of river pollution can be done by providing the extra ___________ during dry season.

A. Water
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbondioxide
D. Oxygen
Answer» D. Oxygen
52.

Determination of flow increase is used for the monitoring of ___________

A. sea pollution
B. River pollution
C. Lake pollution
D. Tank pollution
Answer» B. River pollution
53.

which of the following does not include in the monitoring of river pollution?

A. Assessing the immediate water quality
B. Development activities in the region
C. Determination of flow increase
D. Colour of the water
Answer» D. Colour of the water
54.

Which one of the following is the basic indicator of river health?

A. BOD
B. COD
C. DO
D. ThOD
Answer» C. DO
55.

What is the minimum amount of DO required for the life survival of aquatic animals?

A. 10 mg/l
B. 5 mg/l
C. 2 mg/l
D. 1 mg/l
Answer» C. 2 mg/l
56.

In the concept of self purification of natural streams, complete the following phrase. Solution to pollution is _________

A. Control
B. Dilution
C. Reuse
D. Recycle
Answer» B. Dilution
57.

_________ is accomplished by the replenishment of oxygen lost to bacterial degradation of organic waste.

A. Gas transfer
B. Dilution
C. Filtration
D. Re-suspension
Answer» A. Gas transfer
58.

On which of the following does the self purification process does not depend?

A. Volume
B. Flow rate
C. Temperature
D. Aquatic species
Answer» D. Aquatic species
59.

In a flowing stream, the breakdown of degradable wastes by bacteria ________ dissolved oxygen.

A. Increases
B. Depletes
C. Maintains
D. Improves
Answer» B. Depletes
60.

What is the objective of water quality management?

A. Control the discharge of pollutants
B. Pollutants are discharged into flowing streams
C. Selective pollutants are released
D. Only highly toxic pollutants are released
Answer» A. Control the discharge of pollutants
61.

The impact of pollution depends upon nature of the pollutants and the ___________

A. Toxic contaminants
B. Season
C. Contaminants
D. Characteristics of river
Answer» D. Characteristics of river
62.

Which of the following sewerage systems carry domestic and industrial wastewater?

A. sanitary sewers
B. storm sewers
C. combined sewers
D. storm and combined sewers
Answer» A. sanitary sewers
63.

Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?

A. Enterobacter
B. Alcaligenes
C. Pseudomonas
D. Methanosarcina
Answer» D. Methanosarcina
64.

In which of the following treatment involve oxidation of organic constituents of the wastewater?

A. Primary treatment
B. Secondary treatment
C. Advanced treatment
D. Final treatment
Answer» B. Secondary treatment
65.

The upper region of the trickling filter is favorable for the growth of _____________

A. fungi
B. protozoa
C. algae
D. bacteria
Answer» C. algae
66.

Activated sludge usually employs an aeration period of ________________

A. 1 hour
B. 24 hours
C. 10-15 hours
D. 4-8 hours
Answer» D. 4-8 hours
67.

Trickling filter is used in which of the following wastewater treatment processes?

A. Primary treatment
B. Secondary treatment
C. Advanced treatment
D. Final treatment
Answer» B. Secondary treatment
68.

Belt filter presses are used in which of the following process?

A. Thickening
B. Stabilization
C. Dewatering
D. Disposal
Answer» C. Dewatering
69.

Which of the following gases are produced in large amounts during sludge digestion?

A. methane
B. carbon-dioxide
C. hydrogen
D. nitrogen
Answer» A. methane
70.

Biological process is used to remove _______

A. Settleable solids
B. Volatile solids
C. Dissolved solids
D. Colloids
Answer» C. Dissolved solids
71.

What is the wastewater called as after physical and biological removal of solids?

A. Primary effluent
B. Primary treated water
C. Secondary treated water
D. Secondary treated wastewater
Answer» D. Secondary treated wastewater
72.

What is the monthly concentration of solids produced by secondary sewage effluent?

A. 20 mg/l
B. 30 mg/l
C. 40 mg/l
D. 35 mg/l
Answer» B. 30 mg/l
73.

What is the expected BOD removal after both primary and secondary treatment?

A. 90%
B. 85%
C. 80%
D. 75%
Answer» B. 85%
74.

What is the percentage removal of BOD by stabilization ponds?

A. 20%
B. 45%
C. 65%
D. 95%
Answer» C. 65%
75.

Which of these is not an advantage of a trickling filter?

A. Temperature
B. Construction cost
C. Oxygen delivery
D. Electric systems
Answer» A. Temperature
76.

The secondary clarifiers are ________

A. Circular
B. Rectangular
C. Square
D. Triangular
Answer» A. Circular
77.

Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter material in the treatment of water?

A. Sand
B. Anthracite
C. Crushed rock
D. Garnet sand
Answer» C. Crushed rock
78.

Which of the following is correct regarding the cheapest filter material used in water treatment?

A. Sand>Anthracite>Garnet sand
B. SandGarnet sand
C. Sand
D. Sand=Anthracite>Garnet sand
Answer» A. Sand>Anthracite>Garnet sand
79.

The uniformity characteristics of sand expressed in terms of __________

A. Effective size
B. Effective size and uniformity coefficient
C. Uniformity coefficient
D. Mean velocity
Answer» B. Effective size and uniformity coefficient
80.

____ represents the size of sand particle such that 10% of particles are finer than this size.

A. D0.1
B. D1
C. D10
D. D100
Answer» C. D10
81.

What is CU in the expression CU= D60/D10 where D60 and D10 are the sizes of particle such that 60% and 10% of the particles are finer than these sizes respectively?

A. Coefficient of compaction
B. Coefficient of consolidation
C. Uniformity coefficient
D. Effective size
Answer» C. Uniformity coefficient
82.

The effective size of sand of the slow sand filter is __________

A. 0.1-0.2mm
B. 0.2-0.3mm
C. 0.4-0.7mm
D. 1-2mm
Answer» B. 0.2-0.3mm
83.

What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A. 2
B. 2.6
C. 3.1
D. 3.5
Answer» B. 2.6
84.

The value of uniformity coefficient for uniformly graded sand is ______

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
Answer» B. 1
85.

The value of specific gravity for Garnet sand is ____

A. 2.1
B. 3.6
C. 4.2
D. 5.1
Answer» C. 4.2
86.

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Ignition loss of filter should not exceed 3%
B. Wearing loss of filter sand should not exceed 5%
C. The range of CU for the slow sand filter is 3-5
D. The range of CU for the rapid sand filter is 3-5
Answer» C. The range of CU for the slow sand filter is 3-5
87.

In which process of water softening, ion exchange phenomenon takes place?

A. Lime soda process
B. Zeolite process
C. Boiling
D. Demineralization process
Answer» B. Zeolite process
88.

In which process of water softening, the chemicals are added to remove hardness from water?

A. Lime soda process
B. Zeolite process
C. Boiling
D. Demineralization process
Answer» A. Lime soda process
89.

Zeolites are complex compound of ____________

A. Aluminium and lime
B. Silica and soda
C. Aluminium, silica and soda
D. Lime and soda
Answer» C. Aluminium, silica and soda
90.

The color of the artificial zeolite permutit is ____________

A. Grey
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. White
Answer» D. White
91.

Natural zeolite is mainly processed from ____________

A. White sand
B. Green sand
C. Grey sand
D. Red sand
Answer» B. Green sand
92.

The color of the natural zeolite is ____________

A. Green
B. Grey
C. Black
D. Blue
Answer» A. Green
93.

The chemical formula of Permutit is ____________

A. SiOAl2O3Na2O
B. SiO2Al2O3Na2O
C. SiO2Al2O3NaO
D. SiO3Al2O3Na2O
Answer» B. SiO2Al2O3Na2O
94.

Permutit has an exchange value of ________ grams of hardness per m3 of zeolite.

A. 10,000
B. 20,000-30,000
C. 35,000-40,000
D. 40,000-50,000
Answer» C. 35,000-40,000
95.

The thickness of the layers of filter sand of zeolite softener is ____________

A. 20cm
B. 30cm
C. 40cm
D. 100cm
Answer» D. 100cm
96.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A. No sludge is formed
B. The process is almost automatic
C. Suspended impurities get deposited around the zeolite particles
D. Zero hardness can be occurred
Answer» C. Suspended impurities get deposited around the zeolite particles
97.

Water is mainly used in boilers for the generation of ________________

A. Power
B. Electricity
C. Steam
D. Current
Answer» C. Steam
98.

Which of the following should not be a composition of boiler-feed water?

A. Hardness should be below 0.2ppm
B. Its caustic alkalinity should lie between 0.15 to 0.45 ppm
C. Its soda alkalinity should be 0.45-1 ppm
D. Its caustic alkalinity should be 1.5-2 ppm
Answer» D. Its caustic alkalinity should be 1.5-2 ppm
99.

Which of the following is not a result of the excess of impurity in boiler-feed?

A. Scale and sludge formation
B. Decomposition
C. Corrosion, priming and foaming
D. Caustic embrittlement
Answer» B. Decomposition
100.

If the precipitate formed is soft, loose and slimy, these are __________ and if the precipitate is hard and adhering on the inner wall, it is called _____________

A. Sludges, scale
B. Scale, sludges
C. Sludges, rodent
D. Scale, rodent
Answer» A. Sludges, scale
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